A nurse is evaluating a client who has hypertension and is taking lisinopril, an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB). Which of the following outcomes indicates that the medication is effective?
The client has no edema in the lower extremities.
The client has a urine output of 30 mL/hr.
The client has a blood pressure of 120/78 mm Hg.
The client has a serum creatinine level of 1.2 mg/dL.
The Correct Answer is C
The client has a blood pressure of 120/78 mm Hg. This indicates that the medication is effective because it lowers the blood pressure below the hypertensive levels. In adults 60 years of age or older, this is typically defined as a systolic pressure below 150 mm Hg and a diastolic pressure below 90 mm Hg.
Choice A is wrong because the client has no edema in the lower extremities. This is not a specific outcome of lisinopril, an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB). Edema can be caused by many factors, such as heart failure, kidney disease, or venous insufficiency. Lisinopril does not directly affect fluid retention or edema.
Choice B is wrong because the client has a urine output of 30 mL/hr. This is a low urine output that may indicate dehydration, kidney impairment, or urinary obstruction. Lisinopril is expected to increase urine output by reducing the blood pressure and improving the renal blood flow.
Choice D is wrong because the client has a serum creatinine level of 1.2 mg/dL. This is a high serum creatinine level that may indicate kidney damage or reduced kidney function. Lisinopril is expected to lower the serum creatinine level by preventing the progression of kidney disease and protecting the kidney from further injury.
Normal ranges of urine output, blood pressure, and serum creatinine are:
• Urine output: 800 to 2000 mL/day or 40 to 80 mL/hr
• Blood pressure: less than 120/80 mm Hg for adults
• Serum creatinine: 0.6 to 1.2 mg/dL for males and 0.5 to 1.1 mg/dL for females
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
This is because metoprolol is a beta blocker, which can block the beta-2 receptors in the lungs and cause constriction of the airways.This can lead to breathing problems such as shortness of breath, cough, and wheezing. Bronchospasm is more likely to occur in people who have asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
Choice A is wrong because tachycardia, or fast heart rate, is not an adverse effect of metoprolol. In fact, metoprolol can lower the heart rate by blocking the beta-1 receptors in the heart.A normal resting heart rate for adults ranges from 60 to 100 beats per minute (bpm).Metoprolol can cause bradycardia, or slow heart rate, which can be a serious side effect if it is too low.
Choice B is wrong because hyperglycemia, or high blood sugar, is not an adverse effect of metoprolol. Metoprolol does not affect the insulin secretion or glucose metabolism in the body.A normal blood sugar level for adults without diabetes is less than 140 mg/dL (7.8 mmol/L) two hours after eating. Metoprolol can cause hypoglycemia, or low blood sugar, in people who have diabetes and take insulin or other glucose-lowering medications.This is because metoprolol can mask the symptoms of hypoglycemia, such as palpitations and tremors.
Choice D is wrong because hyperkalemia, or high potassium, is not an adverse effect of metoprolol. Metoprolol does not affect the potassium balance in the body.
A normal blood potassium level for adults is 3.6 to 5.2 millimoles per liter (mmol/L)
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice B is wrong because “I will eat more green leafy vegetables.” This statement indicates a need for further teaching because green leafy vegetables are high in vitamin K, which can antagonize the effects of warfarin and increase the risk of clotting.The client should be advised to maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K and avoid sudden changes in their diet.
Choice A is wrong because using an electric razor for shaving is a safe practice for a client who is receiving warfarin, as it reduces the risk of bleeding from cuts or nicks.
Choice C is wrong because checking stools for blood is an important measure for a client who is receiving warfarin, as it can indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, which is a serious adverse effect of the medication.
Choice D is wrong because having blood drawn regularly is necessary for a client who is receiving warfarin, as it allows the monitoring of the international normalized ratio (INR), which reflects the degree of anticoagulation and guides the dosage adjustment of the medication.
The normal range for INR for a client who is receiving warfarin is 2 to 3, unless otherwise specified by the provider.
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