A nurse is emptying a client's urinal when she notices the urine is dark amber, cloudy, and has an unpleasant odor. The nurse should identify that these findings are likely to be the result of which of the following?

Urinary frequency

Urinary tract Infection

Urinary incontinence

Urinary retention

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A.   Urinary frequency refers to the need to urinate more often than usual. It does not typically cause changes in the color, clarity, or odor of urine. It may be associated with conditions like urinary tract infections (UTIs) or other urinary issues but does not directly cause dark amber, cloudy, or foul-smelling urine.
B.   A UTI is a common cause of changes in urine characteristics. Dark amber color can indicate concentrated urine due to dehydration or the presence of blood. Cloudiness suggests the presence of pus or bacteria, while an unpleasant odor can be due to bacterial growth. UTIs often cause these symptoms due to inflammation and infection of the urinary tract.
C.   Urinary incontinence refers to involuntary loss of urine. It does not typically cause changes in the appearance or odor of urine unless it leads to urine pooling and subsequent bacterial growth, which could potentially cause odor. However, incontinence itself is not a direct cause of dark amber, cloudy urine with an unpleasant odor.
D.   Urinary retention occurs when the bladder does not empty completely or at all. It can lead to concentrated urine (dark amber color) due to prolonged storage in the bladder. Cloudiness and an unpleasant odor can occur if there is bacterial growth in stagnant urine. Therefore, urinary retention can contribute to the observed urine characteristics.

Nursing Test Bank

Quiz #1: RN Exams Pharmacology Exams Quiz #2: RN Exams Medical-Surgical Exams Quiz #3: RN Exams Fundamentals Exams Quiz #4: RN Exams Maternal-Newborn Exams Quiz #5: RN Exams Anatomy and Physiology Exams Quiz #6: RN Exams Obstetrics and Pediatrics Exams Quiz #7: RN Exams Fluid and Electrolytes Exams Quiz #8: RN Exams Community Health Exams Quiz #9: RN Exams Promoting Health across the lifespan Exams Quiz #10: RN Exams Multidimensional care Exams

Get 100+ Naxlex Exit Exams for $79 Try Naxlex NCLEX-RN (14 Day Free-Trial)

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Quiz #1: Naxlex RN Comprehensive online practice 2019 B with NGN Quiz #2: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quiz #3: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Exam A Quiz #4: Naxlex HESI Exit LPN Exam Quiz #5: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor PN 2020 Quiz #6: Naxlex VATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Quiz #8: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 - Exam 1 Quiz #10: Naxlex HESI PN Exit exam Quiz #11: Naxlex HESI PN EXIT Exam 2

Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Glucagon is administered to increase blood glucose levels in hypoglycemic states. However, the client's glucose level is within the normal range (72 mg/dL), so administering glucagon is not appropriate.

B. Chvostek's sign is assessed to detect hypocalcemia, not hypokalemia. It involves tapping the facial nerve anterior to the earlobe and observing for facial muscle contraction. This action is not relevant to the potassium level and is not indicated based on the laboratory findings provided.
C. The client's potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L is below the normal range, indicating hypokalemia. Potassium replacement is essential to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. The nurse should follow the facility's protocol for administering potassium replacement, which may include adjusting the TPN solution or administering intravenous potassium supplements.
D. Discontinuing the TPN infusion is not warranted based solely on the potassium level. The TPN infusion provides essential nutrition and should not be stopped without addressing the electrolyte imbalance separately.

A. "Wear a mask when entering the client's room." B. "Gloves are not necessary if you wash your hands well." C. "Place a mask on the client when you check her vital signs." D. "Wear a gown whenever you come in close contact with the client."

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Wearing a mask helps prevent the spread of respiratory droplets that may contain infectious pathogens, such as those causing pneumonia. It protects both the client from potential pathogens carried by the AP and the AP from potential exposure to the client's respiratory secretions.

B. Gloves should be worn when there is a risk of contact with the client's body fluids, including respiratory secretions, to prevent transmission of infectious agents. Hand hygiene (washing hands well) is important but does not replace the need for gloves in situations where there is a risk of exposure to bodily fluids.
C. Placing a mask on the client would not typically be required unless the client is coughing excessively and the mask is intended to contain respiratory droplets. However, the focus of precautions should primarily be on protecting the AP.
D. Wearing a gown may be necessary if there is a risk of contamination with respiratory secretions or if the AP anticipates contact with the client's body fluids. However, it is not specifically required for routine vital sign measurement unless there is visible contamination or extensive contact with the client's secretions.

View Question and Answer

Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.

Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today

A nurse is emptying a client's urinal when she notices the urine is dark amber, cloudy, and has an unpleasant odor. The nurse should identify that these findings are likely to be the result of which of the following?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN): glucose 72 mg/dL, chloride 100 mEq/L. sodium 138 mEq/L and potassium 3.0 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

An assistive personnel (AP) asks a nurse what precautions he should take when measuring the vital signs of a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is caring for an older adult client who has dysphagia and left-sided weakness following a stroke. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

A nurse is caring for a client who requires contact precautions. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

A nurse is discussing pressure ulcer staging with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following statements should the nurse use to describe a stage 3 pressure ulcer?

The nurse is preparing to administer ear drops to an adult client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

A nurse is assisting with the plan of care for a client who has pneumonia and requires chest percussion, vibration, and postural drainage. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to complete first?

A nurse is preparing to lift a box of supplies in the supply room. Which of the following body mechanics should the nurse plan to use?

A nurse is collecting data from a client. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the charge nurse as an indicator of dehydration?

A nurse is assessing a client who has asthma and signs of central cyanosis. Which of the following is a reliable indicator of cyanosis?