A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who has preeclampsia and is to receive magnesium sulfate via continuous IV infusion.
Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan?
Give the client protamine if signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity occur.
Monitor the FHR via Doppler every 30 min.
Restrict the client's total fluid intake to 250 mL/hr.
Measure the client's urine output every hour.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
Give the client protamine if signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity occur. Protamine is not the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Calcium gluconate or calcium chloride is used to counteract the effects of magnesium sulfate toxicity by antagonizing the action of magnesium on the neuromuscular junction and the heart.
Choice B rationale:
Monitor the FHR via Doppler every 30 min. While fetal heart rate (FHR) monitoring is important during magnesium sulfate infusion due to the risk of fetal distress, using Doppler every 30 minutes may not provide continuous and accurate monitoring. Continuous electronic fetal monitoring is the standard of care in this situation.
Choice C rationale:
Restrict the client's total fluid intake to 250 mL/hr. Magnesium sulfate is excreted by the kidneys, so maintaining adequate urine output is crucial to prevent magnesium toxicity. Restricting fluid intake to 250 mL/hr would likely reduce urine output, leading to an increased risk of magnesium sulfate accumulation in the body, which could be harmful.
Choice D rationale:
Measure the client's urine output every hour. Monitoring urine output is essential during magnesium sulfate infusion as it helps assess renal function and magnesium excretion. Adequate urine output (at least 30 mL/hr) is necessary to prevent magnesium toxicity. Therefore, measuring the client's urine output every hour is a critical nursing intervention to ensure the safety of the client.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Hypoglycemia refers to low blood sugar levels. This condition can occur in newborns, especially those born to mothers with diabetes, preterm babies, babies who are small for gestational age, or those who have experienced a difficult delivery. However, the provided information does not indicate any signs of hypoglycemia such as jitteriness, poor feeding, or lethargy.
Choice B rationale: Bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD) is a chronic lung disease that affects newborns and infants. It’s more common in premature infants who have received oxygen therapy or mechanical ventilation. The newborn’s information does not suggest any risk factors for BPD.
Choice C rationale: Transient tachypnea of the newborn (TTN) is a respiratory problem that can be seen shortly after delivery in babies who have no other health issues. It’s caused by fluid in the lungs. The newborn’s increased respiratory rate and grunting are signs of TTN. This condition is more common in babies delivered via cesarean birth, as in this case.
Choice D rationale: Tachycardia refers to a heart rate that’s too fast. While the newborn’s heart rate is on the higher side of normal (normal range: 120-160 beats per minute), it’s not high enough to be considered tachycardia. Therefore, based on the provided information, the newborn is at risk for developing Transient tachypnea of the newborn (Choice C). The other conditions mentioned do not align with the symptoms and risk factors presented in the scenario.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is Choice A.
Choice A rationale:
The client has influenza, which is a respiratory illness that can be transmitted through droplets when the infected person coughs, sneezes, or talks. The UAP is in close contact with the client while assisting them to sit up in bed to eat lunch. Therefore, it is necessary for the UAP to wear a face mask in addition to a gown and gloves to prevent the spread of the virus.This is in line with the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) guidelines, which recommend that healthcare personnel wear a face mask when they are in the same room as a patient with suspected or confirmed influenza.
Choice B rationale:
A fitted respirator mask is not necessary in this situation.According to the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), respirators are required for airborne diseases such as tuberculosis, but not for influenza, which is a droplet-transmitted disease. Therefore, reminding the UAP to apply a fitted respirator mask before entering the client’s room is not the most appropriate action.
Choice C rationale:
Assigning the UAP to provide care for another client and assuming full care of the client is not the most appropriate action in this situation. The UAP is already wearing a gown and gloves, which are part of the standard precautions for any patient care.The UAP just needs to add a face mask to their personal protective equipment (PPE) to safely assist the client.
Choice D rationale:
Instructing the UAP to notify the nurse of any changes in the client’s respiratory status is always a good practice. However, it does not address the immediate need for the UAP to wear a face mask while in close contact with the client. Therefore, it is not the most appropriate action in this situation.
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