A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who has preeclampsia and is to receive magnesium sulfate via continuous IV infusion.
Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan?
Give the client protamine if signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity occur.
Monitor the FHR via Doppler every 30 min.
Restrict the client's total fluid intake to 250 mL/hr.
Measure the client's urine output every hour.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
Give the client protamine if signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity occur. Protamine is not the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Calcium gluconate or calcium chloride is used to counteract the effects of magnesium sulfate toxicity by antagonizing the action of magnesium on the neuromuscular junction and the heart.
Choice B rationale:
Monitor the FHR via Doppler every 30 min. While fetal heart rate (FHR) monitoring is important during magnesium sulfate infusion due to the risk of fetal distress, using Doppler every 30 minutes may not provide continuous and accurate monitoring. Continuous electronic fetal monitoring is the standard of care in this situation.
Choice C rationale:
Restrict the client's total fluid intake to 250 mL/hr. Magnesium sulfate is excreted by the kidneys, so maintaining adequate urine output is crucial to prevent magnesium toxicity. Restricting fluid intake to 250 mL/hr would likely reduce urine output, leading to an increased risk of magnesium sulfate accumulation in the body, which could be harmful.
Choice D rationale:
Measure the client's urine output every hour. Monitoring urine output is essential during magnesium sulfate infusion as it helps assess renal function and magnesium excretion. Adequate urine output (at least 30 mL/hr) is necessary to prevent magnesium toxicity. Therefore, measuring the client's urine output every hour is a critical nursing intervention to ensure the safety of the client.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is A. Increased pain.
Choice A reason: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that, when administered, reverses the effects of opioids. Since opioids provide analgesia, their reversal will lead to the return of pain sensation. The normal pain response varies widely among individuals and depends on the type and amount of opioid the patient received, as well as their pain threshold and tolerance.
Choice B reason: Somnolence, or drowsiness, is a common effect of opioid administration. Naloxone works by displacing opioids from their receptors, which should counteract the sedative effects of opioids and reduce somnolence. Therefore, after naloxone administration, the nurse should not expect somnolence as a finding.
Choice C reason: Hyperglycemia, or high blood sugar, is not a direct effect of naloxone administration. While some studies suggest that naloxone may affect blood glucose levels under certain conditions, such as in the case of tramadol overdose, it does not typically cause hyperglycemia. Normal blood glucose levels range from 70 to 99 mg/dL fasting, and up to 140 mg/dL two hours after eating.
Choice D reason: Hypoventilation, or reduced breathing rate and depth, is caused by opioid administration. Naloxone’s role is to reverse this effect, restoring normal breathing rates. The normal respiratory rate for a healthy adult at rest is 12 to 20 breaths per minute.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The described cardiac rhythm with a wavy baseline, no distinguishable P waves, and an increased heart rate is consistent with atrial fibrillation. In atrial fibrillation, the atria quiver instead of contracting effectively, leading to an irregular and often rapid heart rate. This rhythm is characterized by the absence of distinct P waves on the ECG.
Choice B rationale:
Ventricular asystole is a flatline on the ECG, indicating the absence of electrical activity in the heart. It is a life-threatening arrhythmia and requires immediate intervention with cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) and advanced cardiac life support (ACLS) protocols.
Choice C rationale:
Second-degree heart block is characterized by intermittent failure of atrial electrical impulses to conduct to the ventricles. This results in occasional dropped beats and a varying heart rate. It is not consistent with the described ECG findings in the question.
Choice D rationale:
Sinus tachycardia is a regular, fast heart rate originating from the sinoatrial (SA) node. In sinus tachycardia, P waves are present, indicating that the electrical impulses originate in the SA node. The described ECG findings do not match the characteristics of sinus tachycardia.
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