A nurse is developing a care plan for a patient with pneumonia who requires chest percussion, vibration, and postural drainage.
What should the nurse plan to do first?
Cup hands and tap on the patient’s chest repeatedly.
Position the patient so that the lung area to be drained is above the trachea.
Provide mouth care.
Auscultate lung fields.
The Correct Answer is D
The correct answer is choice d. Auscultate lung fields.
Choice A rationale:
Cupping hands and tapping on the patient’s chest is part of the chest percussion technique, which helps to loosen mucus. However, it is not the first step. Before performing any physical intervention, the nurse must assess the patient’s current respiratory status.
Choice B rationale:
Positioning the patient so that the lung area to be drained is above the trachea is part of postural drainage. This step is crucial but should be done after assessing the patient’s lung fields to determine the areas that need drainage.
Choice C rationale:
Providing mouth care is important for overall hygiene and to prevent infection, especially in patients with respiratory conditions. However, it is not directly related to the immediate assessment and intervention for chest physiotherapy.
Choice D rationale:
Auscultating lung fields is the first step because it allows the nurse to assess the patient’s respiratory status and identify areas with abnormal breath sounds, which will guide the subsequent interventions like chest percussion, vibration, and postural drainage. This assessment ensures that the interventions are targeted and effective.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Hypovolemic shock is a type of shock that occurs when there is a significant loss of blood or fluid volume, leading to decreased cardiac output and tissue perfusion. This can be caused by severe bleeding, dehydration, burns, or other conditions that result in fluid loss. While anaphylaxis can involve some fluid shifts, it is not primarily characterized by a loss of blood or fluid volume.
Key features of hypovolemic shock that distinguish it from anaphylactic shock include:
Prominent signs of dehydration: Dry skin and mucous membranes, decreased urine output, sunken eyes, and poor skin turgor.
Hemodynamic changes: Tachycardia, narrow pulse pressure, and cold extremities due to vasoconstriction to maintain blood pressure.
Laboratory findings: Elevated hematocrit and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels, indicating hemoconcentration and decreased kidney perfusion.
Choice B rationale:
Obstructive shock is a type of shock that occurs when there is an obstruction to blood flow, preventing adequate circulation to the body's tissues. This can be caused by conditions such as pulmonary embolism, cardiac tamponade, or tension pneumothorax. Anaphylaxis does not involve a physical obstruction to blood flow.
Key features of obstructive shock that distinguish it from anaphylactic shock include:
Evidence of the underlying obstruction: Jugular venous distension (cardiac tamponade), muffled heart sounds (cardiac tamponade), or respiratory distress (pulmonary embolism or tension pneumothorax).
Distinctive hemodynamic changes: Equalization of diastolic pressures between the right and left ventricles (cardiac tamponade).
Specific imaging findings: Enlarged cardiac silhouette on chest X-ray (pericardial effusion), filling defects in the pulmonary arteries on CT angiography (pulmonary embolism), or hyperexpanded lung fields with a deviated trachea on chest X-ray (tension pneumothorax).
Choice C rationale:
Cardiogenic shock is a type of shock that occurs when the heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the body's needs. This can be caused by conditions such as heart attack, heart failure, or cardiomyopathy. Anaphylaxis does not primarily involve a failure of the heart's pumping function.
Key features of cardiogenic shock that distinguish it from anaphylactic shock include:
Evidence of heart failure: Pulmonary edema, elevated jugular venous pressure, and a third heart sound (S3 gallop).
Electrocardiogram (ECG) changes: ST-segment elevation or depression, Q waves, or other signs of myocardial ischemia or infarction.
Elevated cardiac enzymes: Troponin and creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB) levels, indicating heart muscle damage.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is Choice A: Refer questions to the nursing supervisor.
Choice A rationale: By referring inquiries from other nurses to the nursing supervisor, the nurse maintains patient privacy and upholds healthcare privacy regulations, such as the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA). These regulations mandate that patient information should only be disclosed on a need-to-know basis. Referring questions to the nursing supervisor ensures that any information released is managed through the appropriate channels and protects the patient's confidentiality.
Choice B rationale: Transferring calls directly to the patient's room could infringe on their privacy and disrupt their care or rest. It is not the nurse's role to decide if the patient should be disturbed, and doing so may potentially compromise patient care and satisfaction.
Choice C rationale: Acknowledging that the person is a patient on the unit can violate confidentiality rules, as it confirms the individual's presence in the hospital and could lead to speculation about their condition. Nurses must maintain patient privacy by refraining from sharing any information, even if it seems harmless.
Choice D rationale: Contacting the patient's provider does not directly address the issue of handling inquiries from other nurses and could breach confidentiality if the provider discloses information without the patient's consent. Additionally, the provider may not be immediately available, which would delay addressing the inquiries and potentially expose the patient's privacy further.
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