A nurse is contributing to the plan of care for a client who has an external fixation device in place to treat an open fracture of the tibia and fibula. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?
Apply 4.5 kg (10 lb) traction weight to the distal end of the fixator.
Monitor the neurovascular status of the client's affected limb every 8 hr.
Administer pain medication 30 min prior to pin care.
Adjust the clamps on the device's frame daily.
The Correct Answer is C
The correct answer is Choice C.
Choice A rationale: Applying traction weight to the external fixator is not recommended, as it can cause excessive stress on the pins and wires, leading to complications such as infection, loosening, or breakage1. Traction is usually applied to skeletal pins that are inserted into the bone without an external frame2.
Choice B rationale: Monitoring the neurovascular status of the affected limb is important, but every 8 hours is not frequent enough. The nurse should perform neurovascular checks every 2 to 4 hours for the first 24 hours, then every 4 to 8 hours, according to the facility policy3. This is to assess for signs of nerve damage, compartment syndrome, or impaired circulation, which can result from the injury or the device.
Choice C rationale: Administering pain medication 30 min prior to pin care is a correct intervention, as it can help reduce the discomfort and anxiety associated with the procedure. Pin care involves cleaning the pin sites with an antiseptic solution and applying sterile dressings to prevent infection and promote healing. The frequency and technique of pin care may vary depending on the type of device, the condition of the wound, and the facility protocol.
Choice D rationale: Adjusting the clamps on the device’s frame daily is not a nursing intervention, as it can alter the alignment and stability of the fracture. The clamps should be tightened only by the orthopedic surgeon or a trained technician, and only when necessary. The nurse should inspect the device for any loose or broken parts and report any problems to the surgeon.
So, the correct answer is Choice C, after analysing all choices.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Palpable area of induration, greater than 10 mm (0.4 in) in diameter. This indicates a positive tuberculin skin test (TST) reaction for a person with no known risk factors for TB infection. A positive TST reaction means that the person has been infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the bacterium that causes TB disease, and needs further testing to confirm the diagnosis and rule out active TB disease.
The other choices are not correct because:
- Choice A. Nonpalpable area of redness, less than 5 mm (0.2 in) in diameter. This indicates a negative TST reaction for any person, regardless of their risk factors for TB infection. A negative TST reaction means that the person has not been infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis or has a very low level of immune response to the bacterium.
- Choice B. Area of ecchymosis, greater than 12 mm (0.5 in) in diameter. This indicates a bruise or bleeding under the skin, not a TST reaction. Ecchymosis is not caused by the injection of tuberculin purified protein derivative (PPD) into the skin, but by trauma or injury to the blood vessels.
- Choice C. Tenderness at the injection site. This indicates a mild local reaction to the injection of tuberculin PPD into the skin, not a TST reaction. Tenderness is not measured in millimeters of induration (firm swelling), which is the standard way of reading TST results.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B, which cleans a blood spill with chlorine bleach. This is an appropriate action for infection control because bleach is an effective disinfectant that can kill most pathogens, including bloodborne viruses such as HIV and hepatitis B and C.
A. Rolling soiled linen with the clean side in it before placing it in the laundry bag is not the correct answer because it can spread pathogens and cause cross-contamination.
Performing hand hygiene with hands at elbow level is not the correct answer because it is not the correct technique for hand hygiene, which involves washing hands with soap and water or using an alcohol-based hand sanitizer.
Instructing a female client to wipe the perineal area from back to front is not the correct answer because it can cause contamination of the urethra and increase the risk of urinary tract infections.
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