A nurse is consulting a pharmacological reference about medication compatibility prior to administering warfarin to a client.
Which of the following medications should the nurse identify as being incompatible with warfarin?
                            
                                                                                                    Naproxen.
Magnesium hydroxide.
Lisinopril.
Propranolol.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Naproxen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) and can increase the risk of bleeding when used with warfarin, which is an anticoagulant medication. Combining these two medications can lead to excessive bleeding and is considered incompatible.
Choice B rationale:
Magnesium hydroxide is an antacid and does not have significant interactions with warfarin. It does not affect the anticoagulant properties of warfarin.
Choice C rationale:
Lisinopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor used to treat high blood pressure and heart failure. It does not have a significant interaction with warfarin.
Choice D rationale:
Propranolol is a beta-blocker used to treat high blood pressure, angina, and other heart conditions. It does not have a significant interaction with warfarin.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","C"]
Explanation
The correct answers are Choices A and C.
Choice A rationale: Severe hypertension in pregnancy disrupts placental perfusion and vascular integrity, increasing risk of placental abruption due to premature separation and hemorrhage, threatening both maternal and fetal outcomes.
Choice B rationale: Cervical insufficiency is linked to structural weakness or trauma, not hypertension; it typically presents with painless dilation and is unrelated to elevated blood pressure or vascular compromise.
Choice C rationale: Hypertensive encephalopathy and preeclampsia can progress to eclampsia, marked by seizures. Elevated BP increases cerebral edema and excitability, triggering convulsions if unmanaged.
Choice D rationale: Hypoglycemia is not a direct consequence of hypertension; it’s more associated with insulin dysregulation, poor intake, or medication effects, not elevated blood pressure.
Choice E rationale: Heart failure may occur in chronic hypertension but is less acute than seizure or abruption risk in this context. No signs of fluid overload or cardiac decompensation are present in the vitals.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The described cardiac rhythm with a wavy baseline, no distinguishable P waves, and an increased heart rate is consistent with atrial fibrillation. In atrial fibrillation, the atria quiver instead of contracting effectively, leading to an irregular and often rapid heart rate. This rhythm is characterized by the absence of distinct P waves on the ECG.
Choice B rationale:
Ventricular asystole is a flatline on the ECG, indicating the absence of electrical activity in the heart. It is a life-threatening arrhythmia and requires immediate intervention with cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) and advanced cardiac life support (ACLS) protocols.
Choice C rationale:
Second-degree heart block is characterized by intermittent failure of atrial electrical impulses to conduct to the ventricles. This results in occasional dropped beats and a varying heart rate. It is not consistent with the described ECG findings in the question.
Choice D rationale:
Sinus tachycardia is a regular, fast heart rate originating from the sinoatrial (SA) node. In sinus tachycardia, P waves are present, indicating that the electrical impulses originate in the SA node. The described ECG findings do not match the characteristics of sinus tachycardia.
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