A nurse is conducting a health promotion class about the use of oral contraceptives. Which of the following disorders is a contraindication for oral contraceptive use?
Fibrocystic breast condition
Hypertension
Asthma
Fibromyalgia
The Correct Answer is B
Rationale:
A. Fibrocystic breast condition: Fibrocystic breast changes are benign and do not contraindicate oral contraceptive use. Oral contraceptives may sometimes improve symptoms, but this condition alone is not a reason to avoid them.
B. Hypertension: Oral contraceptives can elevate blood pressure and increase the risk of cardiovascular complications. Clients with uncontrolled or severe hypertension are at higher risk and should avoid combined estrogen-progestin contraceptives, making this a significant contraindication.
C. Asthma: Asthma is not a contraindication for oral contraceptive use. Hormonal contraceptives generally do not exacerbate asthma, and clients with well-controlled asthma can safely use these medications.
D. Fibromyalgia: Fibromyalgia is a chronic musculoskeletal pain disorder that does not affect cardiovascular or thrombotic risk. It is not a contraindication for oral contraceptives, and use is generally safe in these clients.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D","F"]
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Fetal activity: Decreased fetal movement is an abnormal finding suggesting possible fetal distress or hypoxia. It indicates reduced oxygen or nutrient delivery to the fetus, often associated with maternal complications such as hypertension or preeclampsia. Immediate evaluation with fetal monitoring or ultrasound is warranted.
B. Urine ketones: The absence of urine ketones is expected and does not indicate a prenatal complication. Ketones would only be concerning if elevated, as they could signal dehydration, starvation, or poorly controlled diabetes, which is not present in this case.
C. Urine protein: The presence of 3+ protein in the urine is a key indicator of preeclampsia. Proteinuria results from endothelial damage in the kidneys caused by hypertension, leading to leakage of protein into the urine and confirming a serious pregnancy complication.
D. Report of headache: A severe, persistent headache unrelieved by acetaminophen suggests cerebral vasospasm related to preeclampsia. It reflects increased blood pressure affecting cerebral circulation and can precede seizures or eclampsia if untreated.
E. Respiratory rate: A respiratory rate of 16/min is within the normal range for adults and does not indicate a prenatal complication. There is no evidence of respiratory distress or metabolic abnormality in this finding.
F. Blood pressure: A reading of 162/112 mm Hg meets the diagnostic criteria for severe hypertension in pregnancy and strongly indicates preeclampsia. Uncontrolled elevated blood pressure increases the risk of seizures, placental abruption, and fetal growth restriction.
G. Gravida/parity: Being G3 P2 with one preterm birth is useful background information but not, by itself, a sign of a current complication. It helps identify obstetric history and risk factors but does not reflect an immediate prenatal concern in this assessment.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Obtain a 12-lead ECG for the client: An ECG is important to assess for myocardial ischemia or infarction, but it should be done after immediate measures are taken to reduce myocardial oxygen demand.
B. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin to the client: Nitroglycerin helps relieve chest pain by dilating coronary arteries, but it should be given only after the client is safely seated or resting to prevent hypotension or injury.
C. Measure the client's vital signs: Vital signs provide valuable baseline data, but addressing the client’s immediate safety and reducing cardiac workload takes priority.
D. Have the client stop walking and sit down: Stopping activity decreases oxygen demand on the heart and prevents worsening ischemia or collapse, making it the first and most critical action.
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