A nurse is collecting data from a client who is experiencing opioid toxicity. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Diaphoresis
Pupillary dilation
Chest pain
Hypotension
The Correct Answer is D
Opioid toxicity causes central nervous system and respiratory depression, which can lead to low blood pressure or hypotension.
Choice A. Diaphoresis is not correct because opioid toxicity does not cause excessive sweating. Diaphoresis can be a sign of opioid withdrawal or other conditions.
Choice B. Pupillary dilation is not correct because opioid toxicity causes miosis or pinpoint pupils due to the stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system .
Choice C. Chest pain is not correct because opioid toxicity does not cause chest pain. Chest pain can be a sign of cardiac ischemia, pulmonary embolism, or other serious conditions.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is choice C. The client's lactose intolerance places her at an increased risk for osteoporosis, as dairy products are a rich source of calcium and vitamin D, which are important for bone health. Walking daily and gardening may actually help to reduce the risk of osteoporosis, as physical activity can help to strengthen bones. Drinking red wine in moderation may provide some benefits for cardiovascular health and may not necessarily increase the risk of osteoporosis.
Reason why each of the other choices are not answers:
A is not correct because walking daily can help to improve bone health and reduce the risk of osteoporosis.
B is not correct because gardening can also provide physical activity and help to reduce the risk of osteoporosis.
D is not correct because propranolol does not typically cause increased hair growth, and requesting a dosage increase based on apical heart rate may not be necessary for all clients taking this medication.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is Choice A.
Choice A rationale: A clear liquid diet 1 to 3 days before a colonoscopy minimizes residue in the colon, enhancing mucosal visualization and reducing the risk of missed lesions. Clear liquids include water, broth, tea, and gelatin, which are easily absorbed and leave minimal waste. This dietary preparation complements bowel cleansing agents like polyethylene glycol. Inadequate preparation can obscure polyps or inflammation. Normal stool consistency should be absent during the procedure to ensure optimal diagnostic accuracy.
Choice B rationale: Polypectomy is typically performed during the colonoscopy itself if polyps are detected. Most polyps are removed using snares or biopsy forceps during the same session, reducing the need for a second procedure. Scheduling another procedure is reserved for complex or large lesions requiring advanced techniques. Delaying removal increases the risk of progression to malignancy. Normal colonoscopy findings include pink mucosa and absence of polyps; any deviation warrants immediate intervention when feasible.
Choice C rationale: Restricting intake to only water for 12 hours before the procedure is insufficient and potentially misleading. Colonoscopy preparation requires both dietary modification and pharmacologic bowel cleansing, not just fasting. Water alone does not clear the colon of fecal matter. Additionally, fasting without electrolyte replacement may lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalance. Normal serum potassium ranges from 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L; inadequate preparation may cause hypokalemia, especially with laxative use.
Choice D rationale: Enemas are not routinely recommended 2 days before colonoscopy. They may be used adjunctively on the day of the procedure for distal colon cleansing but are insufficient for full bowel preparation. Oral bowel prep agents like polyethylene glycol are preferred for complete evacuation. Enemas only reach the rectosigmoid region and do not cleanse the ascending or transverse colon. Incomplete prep compromises mucosal visualization and diagnostic yield, increasing false-negative rates.
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