A nurse is collecting data from a client who is 24 hr postpartum. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Fundus soft, 2 fingerbreadths below the umbilicus

Fundus firm, 1 fingerbreadth below the umbilicus

Fundus firm, 4 fingerbreadths above the umbilicus

Fundus soft, to the right of the umbilicus

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A reason: Fundus soft, 2 fingerbreadths below the umbilicus is incorrect, as this finding indicates uterine atony and subinvolution. The fundus is the upper part of the uterus that can be palpated through the abdomen after birth. The fundus should be firm and midline to indicate adequate uterine contraction and involution. A soft or boggy fundus can increase the risk of hemorrhage and infection.

Choice B reason: Fundus firm, 1 fingerbreadth below the umbilicus is correct, as this finding indicates normal uterine contraction and involution. The fundus is normally at the level of the umbilicus immediately after birth and then descends about one fingerbreadth per day. A firm and midline fundus can prevent excessive bleeding and promote healing.

Choice C reason: Fundus firm, 4 fingerbreadths above the umbilicus is incorrect, as this finding indicates a higher than expected fundal height for a client who is 24 hr postpartum. The fundus is normally at the level of the umbilicus immediately after birth and then descends about one fingerbreadth per day. A high fundal height can indicate uterine atony, retained placental fragments, or bladder distension.

Choice D reason: Fundus soft, to the right of the umbilicus is incorrect, as this finding indicates uterine atony and bladder distension. The fundus should be firm and midline to indicate adequate uterine contraction and involution. A deviated fundus can indicate bladder distension, which can interfere with uterine contraction and involution and increase the risk of hemorrhage and infection.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: The cervix is eﬀaced 3 cm, it is dilated 30%, and the presenting part is 1 cm above the ischial spines is incorrect, as this does not follow the correct order and measurement of cervical assessment. Cervical eﬀacement is measured in percentage, not in centimeters, and it indicates the thinning or shortening of the cervix. Cervical dilation is measured in centimeters, not in percentage, and it indicates the opening or widening of the cervix.

Choice B reason: The cervix is dilated 3 cm, it is eﬀaced 30%, and the presenting part is 1 cm above the ischial spines is correct, as this follows the correct order and measurement of cervical assessment. Cervical dilation, eﬀacement, and station are recorded in that order to describe the progress of labor. Station refers to the relationship between the presenting part of the fetus and the maternal pelvis, measured by the level of the ischial spines. A negative station means that the presenting part is above the spines, while a positive station means that it is below.

Choice C reason: The cervix is eﬀaced 3 cm, it is dilated 30%, and the presenting part is 1 cm below the ischial spines is incorrect, as this does not follow the correct order and measurement of cervical assessment. Cervical eﬀacement is measured in percentage, not in centimeters, and it indicates the thinning or shortening of the cervix. Cervical dilation is measured in centimeters, not in percentage, and it indicates the opening or widening of the cervix.

Choice D reason: The cervix is dilated 3 cm, it is eﬀaced 30%, and the presenting part is 1 cm below the ischial spines is incorrect, as this does not match the documentation of station. A negative station means that the presenting part is above the spines, while a positive station means that it is below.

A. Maternal opioid administration B. Fetal head compression C. Uteroplacental insufficiency D. Umbilical cord compression

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason:

Maternal opioid administration is incorrect, as this factor can cause late decelerations in the fetal heart rate. Late decelerations are symmetrical decreases in the FHR that begin after the peak of the contraction and return to baseline after the contraction ends, which indicate uteroplacental insufficiency. Maternal opioid administration can reduce maternal blood pressure and placental perfusion, leading to fetal hypoxia.

Choice B reason:
Fetal head compression is incorrect, as this factor can cause early decelerations in the fetal heart rate. Early decelerations are symmetrical decreases in the FHR that mirror the contractions, which indicate fetal head compression and vagal stimulation. Fetal head compression occurs as the fetus descends into the birth canal and does not pose a threat to the fetal well-being.

Choice C reason:
Uteroplacental insufficiency is incorrect, as this factor can cause late decelerations in the fetal heart rate. Uteroplacental insufficiency refers to a reduced blood ﬂow and oxygen delivery to the fetus through the placenta, which can result from maternal hypotension, uterine hyperstimulation, placental abruption, or other conditions. Uteroplacental insufficiency can cause fetal hypoxia and acidosis.

Choice D reason:
Umbilical cord compression is correct, as this factor can cause variable decelerations in the fetal heart rate. Variable decelerations are abrupt decreases in the FHR that vary in onset, duration, and depth, which indicate umbilical cord compression and reduced blood ﬂow to the fetus. Umbilical cord compression can occur due to cord prolapse, nuchal cord, short cord, or other causes. The nurse should reposition the client, administer oxygen, and prepare for delivery if indicated.

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A nurse is collecting data from a client who is 24 hr postpartum. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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