A nurse is caring for a postpartum client who saturates a perineal pad in 10 minutes. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Administer oxytocin.
Observe for pooling of blood under the buttocks.
Check the client's blood pressure.
Massage the client's fundus.
The Correct Answer is D
Massage the client’s fundus. This is because the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage is uterine atony, which is the failure of the uterus to contract after delivery. Massaging the fundus can stimulate uterine contractions and reduce bleeding by compressing the blood vessels at the placental site.
Choice A is not correct because administering oxytocin is not the first action to take. Oxytocin is a medication that can also help the uterus contract, but it should be given after assessing the uterine tone and bleeding.
Choice B is not correct because observing for pooling of blood under the buttocks is not a priority action. It can help estimate the amount of blood loss, but it does not address the cause of bleeding or stop it.
Choice C is not correct because checking the client’s blood pressure is not the first action to take. Blood pressure can indicate hypovolemia due to blood loss, but it is not a sensitive indicator and may remain normal until a significant amount of blood is lost.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Anticoagulants for 6 weeks. This is because the client’s symptoms suggest that she has deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is a blood clot in a deep vein of the leg. DVT is a serious condition that can lead to pulmonary embolism, which is a blockage of a blood vessel in the lungs. The treatment for DVT involves anticoagulants, which are drugs that prevent blood clots from growing or forming new ones. The duration of anticoagulant therapy depends on the risk factors and severity of DVT, but it is usually at least 6 weeks.
Choice A is wrong because gentle massage of the affected leg can dislodge the clot and cause a pulmonary embolism.
Choice C is wrong because passive leg exercises can increase blood flow and worsen pain and swelling.
Choice D is wrong because the application of ice to the affected leg can reduce inflammation but does not treat the underlying clot.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Notify the physician of a possible pulmonary embolism. This is because the client's symptoms suggest that she has a pulmonary embolism, which is a blockage of a blood vessel in the lungs often caused by blood clots that travel from the legs. Pulmonary embolism is a life-threateningcondition that requires immediate medical attention. The client may also have chest pain, coughing up blood, dizziness, or fainting.
Choice A is wrong because postpartum mucous membrane congestion does not cause fever, cough, or shortness of breath.
Choice B is wrong because an upper respiratory infection does not cause edema and redness along the saphenous vein.
Choice D is wrong because an antipyretic remedy does not treat the underlying cause of the fever and may mask the severity of the condition.
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