A nurse is collecting data from a client who has macular degeneration. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Nystagmus
Astigmatism
Loss of central vision
Client reports sharp pain
The Correct Answer is C
Rationale:
A. Nystagmus: Nystagmus is characterized by involuntary eye movements and is typically associated with vestibular disorders, multiple sclerosis, or congenital conditions. It is not a symptom of macular degeneration, which primarily affects the retina.
B. Astigmatism: Astigmatism is a refractive error due to an irregularly shaped cornea or lens. It is unrelated to macular degeneration, which involves degeneration of the macula—the part of the retina responsible for sharp central vision.
C. Loss of central vision: Macular degeneration leads to progressive deterioration of the macula, resulting in blurred or complete loss of central vision while peripheral vision remains intact. This is a hallmark symptom and significantly affects activities like reading and recognizing faces.
D. Client reports sharp pain: Macular degeneration does not typically cause pain. It is a painless condition, and the presence of sharp eye pain may suggest another acute ocular issue such as glaucoma or injury, not related to macular changes.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Decreased heart rate: Propranolol is a non-selective beta-blocker that reduces heart rate by blocking beta-1 receptors in the heart. Bradycardia is a common and expected adverse effect, and clients should be taught to monitor their pulse regularly and report significant drops.
B. Sudden weight loss: Sudden weight loss is not a typical adverse effect of propranolol. If it occurs, it may indicate an underlying condition or adverse reaction unrelated to the pharmacologic action of beta-blockers and should be evaluated separately.
C. Increased urinary output: Propranolol does not act on the kidneys to promote diuresis. While beta-blockers may be used in combination with diuretics, increased urine output is not a direct effect of this medication and is not expected.
D. White patches on the tongue: White patches on the tongue suggest oral candidiasis, which is more commonly associated with inhaled corticosteroids, not beta-blockers like propranolol. This symptom is unrelated to the medication’s mechanism of action.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Nifedipine: Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker that helps reduce myocardial oxygen demand by decreasing afterload and dilating coronary arteries. However, it is not the priority in acute chest pain management because it has a slower onset compared to nitroglycerin.
B. Nitroglycerin: Nitroglycerin is the priority medication for acute angina. It works rapidly by dilating coronary arteries and reducing myocardial oxygen demand, which helps relieve chest pressure and prevent progression to myocardial infarction.
C. Atenolol: Atenolol, a beta-blocker, decreases heart rate and contractility to reduce myocardial oxygen consumption. While useful for long-term angina management, it is not the first-line agent for immediate chest pain relief in acute settings.
D. Clopidogrel: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet agent that prevents clot formation, often used in long-term management or following stent placement. It does not provide immediate relief from angina and is therefore not the priority medication in this scenario.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.