A nurse is caring for an older adult client who has difficulty communicating verbally due to aphasia following a stroke.
Which of the following strategies should the nurse use to assess this client’s pain? (Select all that apply.)
Ask yes or no questions
Use a visual analog scale (VAS)
Observe for nonverbal cues
Use open-ended questions
Involve family members or caregivers (Source: https://quizlet.com/580119875/pain-management-ati-flash-cards/).
Correct Answer : A,B,C,E
The correct answer is choice A, B, C, and E. The nurse should use the following strategies to assess this client’s pain:
• Ask yes or no questions: This can help the client to communicate their pain level and location with minimal language difficulty.
• Use a visual analog scale (VAS): This is a self-report pain scale that uses a line with endpoints labeled as “no pain” and “worst pain imaginable”. The client can point to a position on the line that corresponds to their pain intensity. VAS has been shown to be feasible, valid, and reliable for stroke patients with mild-to-moderate aphasia.
• Observe for nonverbal cues: This can include facial expressions, body movements, vocalizations, and changes in vital signs that may indicate pain. Nonverbal cues are especially important for clients with severe aphasia who cannot use self-report scales.
• Involve family members or caregivers: They can provide information about the client’s pain history, preferences, and behaviors that may indicate pain. They can also help the nurse to communicate with the client and interpret their responses.
Choice D is wrong because open-ended questions require more complex language skills and may frustrate the client with aphasia. The nurse should use simple and direct questions that can be answered with yes or no, gestures, or pointing.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B. Administer Percocet every six hours around the clock for two days.
This is because the patient has been receiving a continuous infusion of morphine via a PCA pump, which means that they have a steady level of opioids in their system.
If the PCA pump is discontinued abruptly and the patient is switched to oral analgesics PRN, they may experience withdrawal symptoms and inadequate pain relief.
Therefore, the patient needs to receive a scheduled dose of oral opioids for at least two days to prevent a sudden drop in opioid blood concentration and to maintain adequate analgesia.
After two days, the patient’s pain level and opioid requirement may be reassessed and the oral analgesics may be tapered or given PRN as needed.
Choice A is wrong because a higher dose of Percocet is not necessary if the patient reports satisfactory pain relief with the current PCA settings.The equivalent oral dose of morphine for the patient’s average PCA consumption is about 120 mg per day (20 mg x 6 doses), which is equivalent to about 80 mg of oxycodone per day (1.5 x 120 mg).
The prescribed dose of Percocet is 20 mg of oxycodone per day (5 mg x 4 doses), which is about 25% of the patient’s previous opioid requirement.This reduction is appropriate to account for incomplete cross-tolerance between different opioids.
Choice C is wrong because stopping morphine one hour before giving Percocet will not prevent a gap in analgesia.The half-life of morphine is about 2 to 4 hours, which means that it takes about 10 to 20 hours for morphine to be eliminated from the body.
Therefore, stopping morphine one hour before giving Percocet will not significantly reduce the morphine blood concentration and will not avoid the risk of additive effects or overdose.
Choice D is wrong because giving Percocet only if the patient reports breakthrough pain will not provide adequate pain relief for the patient who has been receiving a continuous infusion of morphine via a PCA pump.
The patient may experience withdrawal symptoms and increased pain sensitivity if the opioid blood concentration drops suddenly.
Therefore, the patient needs to receive a scheduled dose of oral opioids for at least two days to prevent a gap in analgesia and to allow a smooth transition from IV to oral opioids.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A. Hepatic necrosis.Acetaminophen (APAP) is a common cause of drug-induced liver injury and can lead to hepatic necrosis, especially in patients who have chronic hepatitis C.APAP is metabolized by the liver and produces a toxic intermediate called N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine (NAPQI), which can deplete glutathione and damage hepatocytes.Patients who have chronic hepatitis C may have reduced glutathione levels and increased oxidative stress, making them more susceptible to APAP toxicity.
Choice B. Pulmonary fibrosis is wrong because APAP does not cause pulmonary fibrosis.
Pulmonary fibrosis is a chronic lung disease that involves scarring of the lung tissue and impaired gas exchange.Some drugs that can cause pulmonary fibrosis are amiodarone, bleomycin, methotrexate and nitrofurantoin.
Choice C. Pancreatitis is wrong because APAP does not cause pancreatitis.
Pancreatitis is an inflammation of the pancreas that can result from gallstones, alcohol abuse, hypertriglyceridemia, hypercalcemia, infections, trauma or certain medications.
Some drugs that can cause pancreatitis are azathioprine, valproic acid, didanosine and pentamidine.
Choice D. Cardiac dysrhythmias is wrong because APAP does not cause cardiac dysrhythmias.
Cardiac dysrhythmias are abnormal heart rhythms that can result from electrolyte imbalances, ischemia, myocardial infarction, heart failure, congenital defects or certain medications.
Some drugs that can cause cardiac dysrhythmias are digoxin, quinidine, sotalol and erythromycin.
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