A nurse is caring for an older adult client diagnosed with a cerebrovascular accident and has right-sided paralysis and aphasia. The client's son tells the nurse it is his fault because he did not insist that his mother live with him. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
"You are not responsible for your mother's stroke, but many people in your situation feel this way.”
"Your mother will be fine. You shouldn't worry so much.”
"Why do you blame yourself? You could not have prevented the stroke.”
"So, it seems that you feel responsible for what happened to your mother.”
The Correct Answer is D
The correct answer is choice d. "So, it seems that you feel responsible for what happened to your mother.”
Choice A rationale: This response attempts to reassure the son but may come off as dismissive of his feelings. It does not encourage further discussion or exploration of his emotions.
Choice B rationale: This response is overly reassuring and dismisses the son’s feelings of guilt. It does not address his emotional state or encourage him to express his concerns.
Choice C rationale: This response questions the son’s feelings directly, which might make him defensive. It does not validate his emotions or encourage him to talk more about his feelings.
Choice D rationale: This response acknowledges the son’s feelings and encourages him to express his emotions. It is a therapeutic communication technique that helps the son feel heard and understood, which is crucial in providing emotional support.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
"This is supposed to happen when you get old, right?" is a common misconception but doesn't necessarily support the diagnosis of delirium. It could be attributed to normal aging changes.
Choice B rationale:
"Since his mother died, he has not been feeling well." indicates a potential stressor but doesn't directly address the rapid onset of behavioral changes, which is a hallmark of delirium.
Choice C rationale:
"My husband just didn't seem to know what he was doing. He has been forgetful for years." suggests a history of forgetfulness rather than an acute change in behavior, which is more indicative of chronic cognitive issues like dementia.
Choice D rationale:
(Correct) "The changes in his behavior came on so quickly! I wasn't sure what was happening." This statement supports the diagnosis of delirium, which is characterized by a sudden onset of confusion and changes in cognitive function. Delirium often develops rapidly, and the client's wife's observation aligns with this diagnostic criterion.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Current rehabilitation for opiate addiction is not typically associated with Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome is primarily linked to chronic alcohol abuse and thiamine deficiency.
Choice B rationale:
A personal history of alcohol use disorder is directly associated with Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome. This syndrome is caused by thiamine (Vitamin B1) deficiency, which is commonly seen in individuals who have a history of heavy and chronic alcohol consumption.
Choice C rationale:
Undergoing current treatment for HIV is not a typical factor associated with the development of Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome. This syndrome's primary cause is thiamine deficiency resulting from alcohol misuse.
Choice D rationale:
Family history of Alzheimer's disease is not a characteristic linked to Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome. These two conditions have different etiologies and clinical presentations. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome is caused by thiamine deficiency, while Alzheimer's disease is a neurodegenerative disorder.
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