A nurse is caring for an infant who has diaper dermatitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Apply a light layer of talcum powder with each diaper change.
Change to cloth diapers until the skin is healed.
Expose the excoriated area to hot air frequently.
Use a moisturizer to wipe urine from the skin.
The Correct Answer is D
a. Talcum powder is not recommended for use with infants because it can be inhaled, potentially causing respiratory problems. Instead, a barrier cream or ointment (such as zinc oxide or petroleum jelly) should be used to protect the skin from moisture and irritants.
b.While cloth diapers can be less irritating than some disposable diapers, they may not be as effective at keeping the skin dry. The priority is to keep the area dry and clean, regardless of the type of diaper used. Super-absorbent disposable diapers are often recommended because they can help keep the skin dry.
c. Exposing the skin to hot air can cause burns and further irritation. Instead, allowing the skin to air dry naturally (without the use of hot air) during diaper changes can be beneficial.
d. A moisturizer creates a barrier between the skin and irritants like urine and stool. Wiping with a moisturizer can minimize friction during cleaning, which can be uncomfortable for the baby and further irritate the skin. Some moisturizers can help soothe and hydrate the inflamed skin, promoting healing.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer ischoice C.
Choice A rationale:
A lead level of 10 mcg/dL is above the CDC’s reference value of 3.5 mcg/dL and would require more immediate follow-up and intervention, not just rescreening in one year.
Choice B rationale:
A lead level of 18 mcg/dL is significantly elevated and would necessitate immediate medical intervention and frequent monitoring, rather than waiting a year for rescreening.
Choice C rationale:
A lead level of 4 mcg/dL is slightly above the CDC’s reference value of 3.5 mcg/dL.While it is concerning, it may be appropriate to rescreen in one year if no other risk factors are present.
Choice D rationale:
A lead level of 44 mcg/dL is dangerously high and requires urgent medical treatment and frequent follow-up, not just rescreening in one year.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D: Pediculosis capitis.
Choice D rationale: Pediculosis capitis is an infestation of head lice, which causes symptoms such as white flakes that do not brush off the hair easily and a rash on the back of the neck. These symptoms are due to the lice feeding on the scalp and laying eggs (nits), which can cause itching and irritation.
Choice A rationale: Folliculitis is an inflammation of the hair follicles, typically caused by bacterial or fungal infections. While it can cause a rash, it is not characterized by white flakes in the hair.
Choice B rationale: Tinea capitis, also known as ringworm of the scalp, is a fungal infection that causes scaly, itchy patches on the scalp. It may lead to hair loss in the affected areas, but it does not typically cause white flakes that do not brush off the hair.
Choice C rationale: Impetigo contagiosa is a highly contagious bacterial skin infection that causes blisters or sores on the skin. It does not involve white flakes in the hair and primarily affects exposed skin rather than the scalp.
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