A nurse is caring for a client who suspects recent exposure to inhalation anthrax. Which of the following findings indicate possible exposure?
Vesicles on the skin
Respiratory failure
Sloughing of skin
Flu-like symptoms
The Correct Answer is B
Choice a) is incorrect because vesicles on the skin are a sign of cutaneous anthrax, not inhalation anthrax. Cutaneous anthrax is caused by direct contact with anthrax spores through a break in the skin. It causes a painless, black, necrotic lesion on the affected area.
Choice b) is correct because respiratory failure is a sign of inhalation anthrax, which is the most deadly form of anthrax. Inhalation anthrax is caused by breathing in anthrax spores that enter the lungs and spread to the bloodstream. It causes severe breathing problems, chest pain, shock, and death.
Choice c) is incorrect because sloughing of skin is a sign of necrotizing fasciitis, not inhalation anthrax. Necrotizing fasciitis is a rare bacterial infection that destroys the soft tissue under the skin. It causes severe pain, swelling, redness, blisters, and gangrene.
Choice d) is incorrect because flu-like symptoms are not specific to inhalation anthrax. Flu-like symptoms can be caused by many other conditions, such as influenza, common cold, or COVID-19. Flu-like symptoms include fever, cough, sore throat, headache, and muscle aches.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A: Provide frequent oral and nares care is the correct action for the nurse to take. Oral and nares care can help prevent infection, dryness, and irritation of the mucous membranes, which can be damaged by the pressure and friction of the tube. The nurse should also monitor the tube position, secure it with tape, and keep scissors at the bedside in case of emergency deflation.
Choice B: Keep the client in a supine position is not the correct action for the nurse to take. The supine position can increase the risk of aspiration, regurgitation, and gastric distension, which can worsen the bleeding and compromise the airway. The nurse should elevate the head of the bed to at least 30 degrees and use a semi-Fowler's or high-Fowler's position.
Choice C: Ambulating the client four times per day is not the correct action for the nurse to take. Ambulation can increase abdominal pressure and dislodge the tube, which can cause bleeding and perforation. The nurse should keep the client on bed rest and use passive range-of-motion exercises to prevent complications such as thromboembolism and muscle atrophy.
Choice D: Encouraging the client to consume clear liquids is not the correct action for the nurse to take. Clear liquids can increase gastric volume and acidity, which can aggravate the bleeding and interfere with hemostasis. The nurse should maintain a nothing-by-mouth status and provide intravenous fluids and nutrition as prescribed.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice a) is incorrect because morphine sulfate is an appropriate prescription for a client who has acute heart failure following MI. Morphine sulfate is an opioid analgesic that can relieve pain, anxiety, and dyspnea. Morphine sulfate can also reduce the preload and afterload of the heart, which can improve the cardiac output and oxygenation.
Choice b) is incorrect because laboratory testing of serum potassium is an appropriate prescription for a client who has acute heart failure following MI. Serum potassium is an electrolyte that is important for the normal function of the cardiac cells and muscles. Serum potassium can be altered by various factors, such as renal function, acid-base balance, medications, or dietary intake. Serum potassium can affect the cardiac rhythm and contractility, which can influence the outcome of the client.
Choice c) is correct because 0.9% normal saline IV at 50 mL/hr continuous is a prescription that requires clarification for a client who has acute heart failure following MI. 0.9% normal saline is an isotonic solution that can maintain the fluid balance and blood pressure in the body. However, 0.9% normal saline can also cause fluid overload and worsen the heart failure symptoms, such as edema, crackles, and dyspnea. The nurse should clarify with the provider if this prescription is appropriate for the client's condition and if there are any parameters or limits for the fluid administration.
Choice d) is incorrect because bumetanide 1 mg IV bolus every 12 hr is an appropriate prescription for a client who has acute heart failure following MI. Bumetanide is a loop diuretic that can increase the urine output and reduce the fluid volume and pressure in the body. Bumetanide can also decrease the preload and afterload of the heart, which can improve the cardiac output and oxygenation.
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