A nurse is caring for a client who suspects recent exposure to inhalation anthrax. Which of the following findings indicate possible exposure?
Vesicles on the skin
Respiratory failure
Sloughing of skin
Flu-like symptoms
None
None
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Vesicles on the skin are not typical of inhalation anthrax; instead, they are more associated with cutaneous anthrax, which presents as papules that progress to vesicles and then black eschars.
Choice B reason: Respiratory failure can occur later in the course of inhalation anthrax, but it is not an early finding. It usually develops after the initial phase of nonspecific symptoms when the illness progresses to severe respiratory distress and shock.
Choice C reason: Sloughing of skin is not characteristic of inhalation anthrax. Similar to vesicles, skin sloughing may be associated with severe cutaneous infections or other dermatologic conditions, not the respiratory form of anthrax.
Choice D reason: Flu-like symptoms, such as fever, cough, malaise, muscle aches, and mild chest discomfort, are the initial and most indicative early findings of inhalation anthrax. These nonspecific symptoms often appear within several days after exposure before progressing to severe respiratory compromise.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because the client's best motor response is 5, which means he can localize pain, not follow commands.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because the client's eye opening response is 3, which means he opens his eyes to pain, not to speech.
Choice C Reason: This is correct because the client's GCS score is 13, which indicates a severe impairment of consciousness. The GCS is a tool used to assess the level of consciousness of a person who has a head injury. The GCS score ranges from 3 to 15, with lower scores indicating lower levels of consciousness. A GCS score of 8 or less indicates coma. The client's GCS score is 3 + 5 + 5 = 13, which is above the coma threshold, but still indicates a severe impairment of consciousness. The other choices are not consistent with the client's GCS score.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because the client's best verbal response is 5, which means he can orient himself to person, place, and time, not that he is unable to make vocal sounds.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A: Provide frequent oral and nares care is the correct action for the nurse to take. Oral and nares care can help prevent infection, dryness, and irritation of the mucous membranes, which can be damaged by the pressure and friction of the tube. The nurse should also monitor the tube position, secure it with tape, and keep scissors at the bedside in case of emergency deflation.
Choice B: Keep the client in a supine position is not the correct action for the nurse to take. The supine position can increase the risk of aspiration, regurgitation, and gastric distension, which can worsen the bleeding and compromise the airway. The nurse should elevate the head of the bed to at least 30 degrees and use a semi-Fowler's or high-Fowler's position.
Choice C: Ambulating the client four times per day is not the correct action for the nurse to take. Ambulation can increase abdominal pressure and dislodge the tube, which can cause bleeding and perforation. The nurse should keep the client on bed rest and use passive range-of-motion exercises to prevent complications such as thromboembolism and muscle atrophy.
Choice D: Encouraging the client to consume clear liquids is not the correct action for the nurse to take. Clear liquids can increase gastric volume and acidity, which can aggravate the bleeding and interfere with hemostasis. The nurse should maintain a nothing-by-mouth status and provide intravenous fluids and nutrition as prescribed.
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