A nurse is caring for a client who requests information about female sterilization (bilateral tubal ligation).
Which of the following statements by the nurse is appropriate? (Select all that apply.).
“This method provides protection against sexually transmitted infections.”.
“This method can be performed within 24 hr following childbirth.”.
“This method can increase your risk for an ectopic pregnancy.”.
“This method requires abdominal surgery with general anesthesia.”.
“This method is immediately effective.”.
Correct Answer : B,E
The correct answer is choice B and E. Bilateral tubal ligation (BTL) is a permanent form of contraception that involves cutting, tying or blocking the fallopian tubes to prevent pregnancy. It can be performed within 24 hours following childbirth and it is immediately effective.
Choice A is wrong because BTL does not provide protection against sexually transmitted infections (STIs).
People who have BTL should still use condoms to prevent STIs.
Choice C is wrong because BTL does not increase the risk for an ectopic pregnancy.
An ectopic pregnancy is when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube.
BTL prevents fertilization by blocking the passage of eggs and sperm.
Choice D is wrong because BTL does not require abdominal surgery with general anesthesia.
BTL can be done using different methods, such as laparoscopy, minilaparotomy, or hysteroscopy.
These methods use small incisions or no incisions at all and can be done with local or regional anesthesia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B.The patient should receive the injection withinsevendays after delivery if breastfeeding, not five.Injectable progestins are a type of hormonal contraception that prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucus.They are given by a health professional every 12 weeks.
Choice A is wrong because injectable progestins may cause bone mineral loss with long-term use, so the patient should be aware of this risk.
Choice C is wrong because injectable progestins may cause decreased bleeding or amenorrhea in some women, which is not harmful but may be unexpected.
Choice D is wrong because injectable progestins are given every three months, not four times per year.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A.Mennorhagia is a contraindication for the use of an intrauterine device (IUD) for contraception because it can cause heavy or prolonged menstrual bleeding.This can lead to anemia, infection, or expulsion of the device.
Choice B is wrong because ovarian cysts are not a contraindication for IUD use.They are usually benign and do not interfere with the placement or function of the device.
Choice C is wrong because fibrocystic breast disease is not a contraindication for IUD use.It is a common condition that causes benign lumps in the breast tissue and does not affect the hormonal balance or the risk of infection.
Choice D is wrong because endometriosis is not a contraindication for IUD use.In fact, some types of IUDs that release progestin can help reduce the symptoms of endometriosis by thinning the endometrial lining and suppressing ovulation.
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