A nurse is caring for a client who is taking COCs and reports nausea.
The nurse should advise the client to
Take the pill with a glass of water on an empty stomach
Take the pill at bedtime or with food
Switch to a different brand of COCs
Stop taking the pill and use another method of contraception
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is choice B. The nurse should advise the client to take the pill at bedtime or with food. This can help reduce nausea, which is a common side effect of COCs. Nausea usually diminishes with continued use of the same method.
Choice A is wrong because taking the pill with a glass of water on an empty stomach may increase nausea.
Choice C is wrong because switching to a different brand of COCs is not effective in treating nausea. There are no significant differences among various COCs in terms of nausea.
Choice D is wrong because stopping the pill and using another method of contraception is not necessary unless the client prefers it. Nausea is not harmful and can be managed with simple measures.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is choice C. Increased risk of HIV transmission.According to some sources, spermicide that contains nonoxynol-9 (N-9) can irritate sensitive genital tissues, especially if used several times a day.
This irritation can increase the risk of HIV and other sexually transmitted infections by giving infections an easy pathway into the body.
Choice A is wrong because vaginal dryness is not a common side effect of spermicide.
Choice B is wrong because bacterial vaginosis is not directly linked to spermicide use.
Choice D is wrong because cervical cancer is not caused by spermicide use.
Spermicide is a type of contraceptive that works by stopping sperm from reaching an egg.
It comes in different forms such as gels, creams, foams, films or suppositories.It needs to be inserted into the vagina before sex and used correctly every time for it to be effective.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B.History of uterine prolapse is a contraindication for the use of a diaphragm as a contraceptive method.Uterine prolapse is a condition where the uterus descends into the vagina, which can interfere with the proper placement and seal of the diaphragm.
Choice A is wrong because history of cervical cancer is not a contraindication for diaphragm use.
Cervical cancer is a malignant tumor of the cervix, which can be treated with surgery, radiation, or chemotherapy.
Diaphragm use does not affect the risk or treatment of cervical cancer.
Choice C is wrong because history of ovarian cysts is not a contraindication for diaphragm use.
Ovarian cysts are fluid-filled sacs that develop in or on the ovaries, which can cause pain, bloating, or irregular periods.
Diaphragm use does not affect the formation or rupture of ovarian cysts.
Choice D is wrong because history of menopause is not a contraindication for diaphragm use.
Menopause is the natural cessation of menstrual cycles and fertility, which occurs around age 50 in most women.
Diaphragm use does not affect the hormonal changes or symptoms of menopause.
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