A nurse is caring for a client who received neostigmine 1 hr ago and is experiencing a muscarinic response.
Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
Occipital headache.
Fever.
Excessive salivation.
Myoclonic seizure.
The Correct Answer is C

Neostigmine is an anticholinesterase inhibitor that indirectly stimulates both nicotinic and muscarinic receptors by interfering with the breakdown of acetylcholine.
Stimulation of muscarinic receptors can lead to increased salivation.
Choice A is wrong because an occipital headache is not a manifestation of a muscarinic response to neostigmine.
Choice B is wrong because fever is not a manifestation of a muscarinic response to neostigmine.
Choice D is wrong because a myoclonic seizure is not a manifestation of a muscarinic response to neostigmine.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant medication and is not administered subcutaneously.
The nurse should clarify this prescription with the provider before administering it.
Choice A is wrong because tetracycline can be prescribed in doses of 1 g orally every 6 hours.
Choice C is wrong because Penicillin G can be prescribed in doses of 5,000,000 units intramuscularly every 4 hours.
Choice D is wrong because Zoledronate can be prescribed as a single intravenous dose of 5 mg.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation

Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is a highly concentrated solution that provides nutrients to the body intravenously.
It is typically administered through a central venous access device, such as a central venous catheter or a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC), because it can irritate the walls of smaller veins.
Choice B is wrong because Midline catheter, is not an appropriate route for TPN administration because it is not a central venous access device.
Choice C is wrong because Subcutaneous, is not an appropriate route for TPN administration because it is not given intravenously.
Choice D is wrong because Intraosseous, is not an appropriate route for TPN administration because it is typically used in emergency situations when intravenous access cannot be obtained.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.