A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous heparin infusion. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse review prior to adjusting the client's heparin?
aPTT
PT
INR
WBC count
The Correct Answer is A
A is correct because aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) measures the effectiveness of heparin therapy and guides dosage adjustments.
B is incorrect because PT (prothrombin time) measures the effectiveness of warfarin therapy, not heparin.
C is incorrect because INR (international normalized ratio) is a standardized version of PT that also monitors warfarin therapy, not heparin.
D is incorrect because WBC count (white blood cell count) measures the body's immune response and has no relation to heparin therapy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Increased haemoglobin is correct. level Epoetin alfa is a medication used to stimulate the production of red blood cells in the bone marrow, and it is often prescribed to treat anaemia. Anaemia is characterized by a decrease in the number of red blood cells or a decrease in the amount of haemoglobin, which is responsible for carrying oxygen in the blood.
The therapeutic response to epoetin alfa is an increase in the haemoglobin level. This indicates that the medication is effectively stimulating the production of red blood cells, leading to an improvement in the client's anaemia and overall oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood.
Choice B reason:
Increased platelet count: Platelets are involved in blood clotting and are not directly affected by epoetin alfa.
Choice C reason:
Increased neutrophil count: Neutrophils are a type of white blood cell involved in the body's immune response. Epoetin alfa primarily affects red blood cells and does not directly impact white blood cell levels.
Choice D reason:
Increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR): ESR is a non-specific indicator of inflammation in the body and is not directly related to the therapeutic response of epoetin alfa in treating anaemia.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. This choice is incorrect because verapamil and TPN do not have a significant food and medication interaction. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that can lower blood pressure and heart rate, while TPN is a form of intravenous nutrition that provides calories, electrolytes, vitamins, and minerals. The nurse should monitor the client's vital signs and blood glucose levels, but there is no need to intervene to prevent an interaction.
B. This choice is incorrect because phenytoin and milkshakes do not have a significant food and medication interaction. Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant that can decrease the absorption of some vitamins, such as folic acid and vitamin D, but milkshakes are not a major source of these nutrients. The nurse should encourage the client to eat a balanced diet and take supplements as prescribed, but there is no need to intervene to prevent an interaction.
C. This choice is incorrect because potassium-rich foods and furosemide do not have a significant food and medication interaction. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia, or low potassium levels, but potassium-rich foods can help prevent this complication. The nurse should monitor the client's electrolyte levels and fluid balance, but there is no need to intervene to prevent an interaction.
D. This choice is correct because MAOIs and cheeseburgers have a significant food and medication interaction. MAOIs are antidepressants that can cause hypertensive crisis, or dangerously high blood pressure, if the client consumes foods that contain tyramine, such as aged cheeses, cured meats, fermented foods, and beer. The nurse should intervene to prevent the client from eating a cheeseburger and educate the client about avoiding tyramine-containing foods while taking MAOIs.
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