A nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed diphenhydramine to relieve pruritus. The client asks the nurse how he can minimize the daytime sedation he is experiencing. Which of the following responses should the nurse give?
"Distribute the doses evenly throughout the day!"
"Gradually decrease the dose once tolerance to the effect is reached."
"Take the medication with meals."
"Take most of the daily dose at bedtime."
The Correct Answer is D
Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine medication that can cause sedation as a side effect. Taking most of the daily dose at bedtime can help minimize daytime sedation. By taking the medication closer to bedtime, the sedative effects are more likely to occur during sleep, reducing the impact of sedation during waking hours.
The other options mentioned are not effective strategies to minimize daytime sedation caused by diphenhydramine:
A. "Distribute the doses evenly throughout the day": This approach may lead to a consistent level of sedation throughout the day and may not effectively minimize daytime sedation.
B. "Gradually decrease the dose once tolerance to the effect is reached": Gradually decreasing the dose of diphenhydramine is not a recommended strategy for minimizing daytime sedation. It is important to follow the prescribed dose and consult with a healthcare provider before making any changes to the medication regimen.
C. "Take the medication with meals": Taking diphenhydramine with meals may help reduce the risk of stomach upset but does not directly address the issue of daytime sedation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Inhaled fluticasone (Flovent) is a corticosteroid medication that is commonly used in the treatment of asthma. It works by reducing inflammation in the airway, which is a key component of asthma. By decreasing inflammation, it helps to prevent and control asthma symptoms, such as wheezing, coughing, and shortness of breath.
The other options mentioned are incorrect:
B. Relieves symptoms of an acute asthma attack: Inhaled fluticasone is not intended for immediate relief during an acute asthma attack. It is a long-term control medication used to manage and prevent asthma symptoms.
C. Causes immediate bronchodilation: Fluticasone does not cause immediate bronchodilation, which refers to the widening of the airways to improve breathing. Bronchodilation is typically achieved with short-acting beta-agonist medications, such as albuterol.
D. Reduces blood pressure and heart rate: Fluticasone is not known to have a direct effect on blood pressure or heart rate. Its primary action is to reduce inflammation in the airway for the management of asthma.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Leukotriene receptor antagonists (LTRAs) like Montelukast are commonly used in the treatment of asthma. They work by blocking the action of leukotrienes, which are inflammatory substances that can cause narrowing and inflammation of the airways in individuals with asthma. By preventing this inflammation, LTRAs help to reduce asthma symptoms and prevent asthma attacks.
The other options mentioned in the statements are not accurate or appropriate for teaching about Montelukast. Taking the medication only when experiencing symptoms is not the recommended approach, as LTRAs are typically taken regularly as part of ongoing asthma management. The statement about the therapeutic effect taking several weeks to notice is not accurate, as Montelukast can start to provide symptom relief within a shorter timeframe.
Additionally, the statement about increasing fiber and fluid intake to prevent constipation is unrelated to the use of Montelukast and may not apply to this medication specifically.
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