A nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed diphenhydramine to relieve pruritus. The client asks the nurse how he can minimize the daytime sedation he is experiencing. Which of the following responses should the nurse give?
"Distribute the doses evenly throughout the day!"
"Gradually decrease the dose once tolerance to the effect is reached."
"Take the medication with meals."
"Take most of the daily dose at bedtime."
The Correct Answer is D
Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine medication that can cause sedation as a side effect. Taking most of the daily dose at bedtime can help minimize daytime sedation. By taking the medication closer to bedtime, the sedative effects are more likely to occur during sleep, reducing the impact of sedation during waking hours.
The other options mentioned are not effective strategies to minimize daytime sedation caused by diphenhydramine:
A. "Distribute the doses evenly throughout the day": This approach may lead to a consistent level of sedation throughout the day and may not effectively minimize daytime sedation.
B. "Gradually decrease the dose once tolerance to the effect is reached": Gradually decreasing the dose of diphenhydramine is not a recommended strategy for minimizing daytime sedation. It is important to follow the prescribed dose and consult with a healthcare provider before making any changes to the medication regimen.
C. "Take the medication with meals": Taking diphenhydramine with meals may help reduce the risk of stomach upset but does not directly address the issue of daytime sedation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Inhaled fluticasone (Flovent) is a corticosteroid medication that is commonly used in the treatment of asthma. It works by reducing inflammation in the airway, which is a key component of asthma. By decreasing inflammation, it helps to prevent and control asthma symptoms, such as wheezing, coughing, and shortness of breath.
The other options mentioned are incorrect:
B. Relieves symptoms of an acute asthma attack: Inhaled fluticasone is not intended for immediate relief during an acute asthma attack. It is a long-term control medication used to manage and prevent asthma symptoms.
C. Causes immediate bronchodilation: Fluticasone does not cause immediate bronchodilation, which refers to the widening of the airways to improve breathing. Bronchodilation is typically achieved with short-acting beta-agonist medications, such as albuterol.
D. Reduces blood pressure and heart rate: Fluticasone is not known to have a direct effect on blood pressure or heart rate. Its primary action is to reduce inflammation in the airway for the management of asthma.
Correct Answer is ["C","D"]
Explanation
The nurse should make the following responses regarding how albuterol helps the client's breathing:
- The medication will open the airways.
- The medication will prevent wheezing.
Albuterol is a bronchodilator medication commonly used to treat respiratory conditions such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). It works by relaxing the smooth muscles in the airways, leading to the dilation of the bronchial tubes and increased airflow. This mechanism helps open up the airways and prevent or relieve symptoms such as wheezing, shortness of breath, and chest tightness.
The other options are incorrect because:
The medication will decrease coughing episodes: While albuterol may indirectly reduce coughing episodes by opening up the airways and improving airflow, its primary effect is on bronchodilation rather than directly targeting coughing.
The medication will stimulate the flow of mucus: Albuterol is not known to stimulate mucus flow. Instead, it focuses on bronchodilation to improve airflow in the lungs.
The medication will reduce inflammation: Albuterol is primarily a bronchodilator and does not have a significant anti-inflammatory effect. Other medications, such as corticosteroids, are typically used to address inflammation in respiratory conditions.
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