A nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant and has a vaginal culture that is positive for chlamydia. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
Amoxicillin
Tetracycline
Metronidazole
Acyclovir
The Correct Answer is A
A) Correct- Amoxicillin is a safe and effective antibiotic for treating chlamydia infection in pregnant women.
B) Incorrect - Tetracycline and related antibiotics are often used to treat chlamydia, but they are contraindicated during pregnancy due to potential effects on fetal tooth and bone development. is contraindicated in pregnancy because it can cause fetal tooth discoloration and bone deformities.
C) Incorrect- Metronidazole is used for treating bacterial vaginosis and certain other infections, but it is not the first-line treatment for chlamydia.
D) Incorrect- Acyclovir is used to treat herpes simplex virus infections, not chlamydia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","D","F","H"]
Explanation
A) Glucose level might need to be assessed if there are signs of hypoglycemia or other concerns.
B) Mucous membrane assessment: Dry mucous membranes might indicate dehydration or other issues that need further evaluation.
C. Respiratory rate: The respiratory rate is not provided in the assessment, so there's no basis to report it. The assessment did not mention any abnormal respiratory rate.
D) The sclera color indicates that the newborn has jaundice, which is a common condition in newborns but requires monitoring and treatment to prevent complications.
E. Intake and output: Intake and output are not mentioned in the assessment, so there's no basis to report it. This information is not provided in the assessment findings.
F) The Coombs test result is important for assessing the presence of antibodies that could lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn due to blood type incompatibility with the mother, which can also cause jaundice and other serious problems.
G. Heart rate: The heart rate is not mentioned in the assessment, so there's no basis to report it. The assessment did not mention any abnormal heart rate.
H) Head assessment findings, such as soft and flat fontanels along with a molded head, should be communicated for further evaluation. The head assessment finding of caput succedaneum is a swelling of the scalp caused by pressure during delivery, which usually resolves within a few days but can increase the risk of jaundice and infection.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Correct- Intrauterine devices (IUDs) have one of the lowest failure rates among contraceptive methods. They are highly effective at preventing pregnancy.
B) Incorrect- Diaphragms have a higher failure rate compared to IUDs.
C) Incorrect- Oral contraceptives have a failure rate slightly higher than IUDs due to the potential for missed doses.
D) Incorrect- Contraceptive sponges have a higher failure rate compared to IUDs.
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