A nurse is reviewing the results of a 1-hr glucose screening test for a client who is at 24 weeks of gestation. The client's glucose value is 130 mg/dL. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Schedule the client for a routine 1-month appointment.
Instruct the client to return for a 3-hr oral glucose tolerance test.
Have the client perform home glucose monitoring for 1 week.
Repeat the 1 hr glucose testing in 1 week.
The Correct Answer is B
A) Incorrect- Scheduling a routine 1-month appointment is not appropriate given the elevated glucose value. A 1-hour glucose screening test value of 130 mg/dL indicates an elevated glucose level, which suggests the need for further testing to confirm or rule out gestational diabetes.
B) Correct - An elevated glucose value on the initial screening test requires confirmation through a more comprehensive test, such as the 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test.
C) Incorrect- Home glucose monitoring might be indicated for gestational diabetes but is not the next step after an elevated 1-hour glucose screening test.
D) Incorrect- Repeating the 1-hour glucose test in 1 week is not necessary; if the initial test is elevated, further testing is required.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Correct - "Progestin-only birth control pills are preferred for contraception during lactation." Progestin-only pills are generally considered safer for breastfeeding mothers as they are less likely to affect milk supply.
B) Incorrect- There is no strong evidence suggesting that taking birth control pills while breastfeeding increases the risk of breast cancer.
C) Incorrect- While breastfeeding can have contraceptive effects, relying solely on breastfeeding for contraception is not a foolproof method. It's recommended to use additional birth control methods if desired.
D) Incorrect- Birth control pills are not contraindicated for breastfeeding clients, especially if they are progestin-only pills. The preferred method, however, is progestin-only rather than combined hormonal pills.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Incorrect- Urinary retention can be a concern but is not as immediately life-threatening as respiratory depression.
B) Correct - A respiratory rate of 11/min is significantly lower than the normal range and indicates respiratory depression, which can be life-threatening. It requires immediate attention.
C) Incorrect- A blood pressure of 105/62 mm Hg is within a normal range for an adolescent and does not require immediate intervention.
D) Incorrect- Blurred vision might be a side effect of medications, but respiratory depression takes priority due to its potential to lead to serious complications.
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