A nurse is caring for a client who is postpartum and has received methylergonovine. Which of the following findings indicates that the medication was effective?
Fundus firm to palpation
Report of absent breast pain
Increase in lochia
Increase in blood pressure
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason:
Methylergonovine is used postpartum to prevent or control uterine bleeding by causing the uterus to contract. A firm fundus upon palpation indicates that the uterus is contracting well, which helps to compress the blood vessels and prevent excessive bleeding. This is the expected outcome when methylergonovine is effective.
Choice B reason:
The absence of breast pain is not directly related to the effectiveness of methylergonovine. Breast pain or engorgement typically occurs when milk comes in a few days postpartum and is not influenced by uterotonic medications.
Choice C reason:
An increase in lochia, or postpartum vaginal discharge, is not an indicator of methylergonovine's effectiveness. Lochia will naturally change and decrease as the postpartum period progresses and is not directly affected by the medication.
Choice D reason:
An increase in blood pressure is not an expected effect of methylergonovine and could indicate a side effect or complication. Methylergonovine can cause hypertension as a side effect, so an increase in blood pressure would warrant further assessment rather than indicating effectiveness.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason:
A negative rubella titer indicates that the client does not have immunity to the rubella virus. Immunity would be indicated by a positive titer, showing the presence of rubella IgG antibodies in the blood. Therefore, this choice is incorrect.
Choice B reason:
While the client does not have immunity, administering a rubella vaccination during pregnancy is not recommended due to the theoretical risk to the fetus. Vaccinations with live viruses, like the rubella vaccine, are generally avoided during pregnancy.
Choice C reason:
A negative rubella titer does indeed indicate that the client is not currently experiencing a rubella infection, as active infection would be indicated by the presence of rubella IgM antibodies. However, this choice does not address the client's susceptibility to future infection or the need for immunization.
Choice D reason:
The correct interpretation of a negative rubella titer in an antepartum client is that she is not immune to rubella and should receive the rubella immunization after delivery. This is to ensure immunity and prevent the possibility of contracting rubella in future pregnancies, which could be harmful to the fetus.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice a reason:
While there is always a risk of introducing infection with an internal examination, this is not the primary concern with placenta previa. Infections are a risk with any invasive procedure, but the precautions taken during a typical internal examination minimize this risk.
Choice b reason:
Initiating preterm labor is a concern with any manipulation of the cervix or uterus during pregnancy. However, at 37 weeks, the pregnancy is considered early-term, and the risk of preterm labor is not the primary concern in the context of placenta previa.
Choice c reason:
The primary reason for avoiding an internal examination in a client with placenta previa is the risk of profound bleeding. With placenta previa, the placenta covers part or all of the cervix. An internal examination could disturb the placenta and lead to significant hemorrhage, which can be life-threatening for both the mother and the fetus.
Choice d reason:
While there is a risk of rupturing the membranes during an internal examination, this is not the primary concern with placenta previa. The main issue is the potential for causing significant bleeding due to the placenta's location over the cervix.
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