A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following vascular surgery.
Which of the following manifestations should indicate to the nurse that the client has developed a thrombus?
Dull, aching calf pain.
Positive Kernig's sign.
Soft, pliable calf muscle.
Positive Homan's sign.
None
None
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is Choice A: Dull, aching calf pain.
Choice A rationale:
Dull, aching calf pain is a common symptom of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which can occur postoperatively, especially after vascular surgery. This pain is often due to a blood clot forming in the deep veins of the leg.
Choice B rationale:
Positive Kernig's sign is associated with meningitis and not typically related to thrombus formation.
Choice C rationale:
Soft, pliable calf muscle is not indicative of a thrombus. A thrombus would more likely cause tenderness and swelling.
Choice D rationale:
Positive Homan's sign (pain in the calf upon dorsiflexion of the foot) can be an indicator of DVT, but it is less reliable than dull, aching calf pain.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should instruct the client to consume foods rich in potassium because furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium depletion. By consuming potassium-rich foods, the client can help maintain proper electrolyte balance. Common potassium-rich foods include bananas, oranges, potatoes, and leafy greens. It is crucial to prevent hypokalemia, as it can result in adverse effects such as cardiac dysrhythmias and muscle weakness.
Choice B rationale:
Taking furosemide at bedtime is not necessary, and it is not a standard instruction. Furosemide is usually taken in the morning to avoid nocturia, as it increases urine output. This option does not address the primary concern of managing pulmonary edema and the potential electrolyte imbalances associated with furosemide use.
Choice C rationale:
Taking aspirin for headaches is not relevant to the client's condition of pulmonary edema or the use of furosemide. This choice does not provide valuable guidance to the client and may lead to unnecessary medication use.
Choice D rationale:
Expecting swelling in the hands and feet is not an appropriate instruction for a client with pulmonary edema. The goal of furosemide therapy is to reduce edema and fluid retention, not to expect or tolerate swelling. This option does not contribute to the client's well-being and recovery.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should identify that an effective outcome of IV fluid replacement in a client with dehydration is an increase in urine output. Urine output of 200 mL in 4 hours indicates that the kidneys are responding to the IV fluid replacement, and the client is likely rehydrating. This suggests that the renal perfusion has improved, and the client's body is eliminating waste products properly.
Choice B rationale:
A heart rate of 104 beats per minute is not necessarily indicative of the effectiveness of IV fluid replacement. Heart rate may vary for various reasons, and it is not a specific parameter for assessing the response to hydration. Other factors, such as blood pressure, should be considered to evaluate cardiovascular status.
Choice C rationale:
Peripheral pulses of +1 are not a direct indicator of the effectiveness of IV fluid replacement. While improved hydration may lead to better peripheral perfusion, this assessment is somewhat subjective and may not accurately reflect the overall effectiveness of the treatment.
Choice D rationale:
A urine specific gravity of 1.04 is not indicative of the effectiveness of IV fluid replacement. A specific gravity of 1.004 is within the normal range (normal range: 1.005-1.030) and does not necessarily indicate hydration status. It is essential to focus on urine output and other objective parameters to assess the effectiveness of hydration therapy. .
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