A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a mitral balloon valvuloplasty.
Which of the following areas should the nurse auscultate to assess the mitral area of the heart?
The second intercostal space at the right sternal border.
The second intercostal space at the left sternal border.
The fifth intercostal space at the left midclavicular line.
The fourth intercostal space at the left sternal border.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
This location, the second intercostal space at the right sternal border, corresponds to the aortic valve area. Auscultation here allows the nurse to assess the sounds produced by the aortic valve, which are distinct from the mitral valve sounds. These sounds are generated as blood is ejected from the left ventricle into the aorta during systole.
Choice B rationale
The second intercostal space at the left sternal border is the correct anatomical location for auscultating the pulmonic valve. The pulmonic valve separates the right ventricle from the pulmonary artery, and listening here allows the nurse to assess the sounds of blood flow into the pulmonary circulation.
Choice C rationale
The fifth intercostal space at the left midclavicular line is the point of maximal impulse (PMI), also known as the apical pulse, which is the anatomical location for the mitral valve. This is the optimal site for auscultating the S1 and S2 heart sounds, as well as any murmurs or abnormal sounds associated with the mitral valve's function.
Choice D rationale
This location, the fourth intercostal space at the left sternal border, is the anatomical location for the tricuspid valve. Auscultation in this area allows the nurse to assess the sounds generated by the tricuspid valve, which regulates blood flow between the right atrium and the right ventricle. *.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Visual disturbances are a less common side effect of risperidone and are not typically considered a priority finding. While they can be a nuisance for the client, they do not pose an immediate threat to the client's life. Other side effects require more immediate attention and intervention from the healthcare provider.
Choice B rationale
Risperidone can cause cardiac side effects such as QT prolongation, which can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias like Torsades de pointes. An irregular pulse is a critical finding that could indicate an underlying cardiac issue and requires immediate evaluation. This is a priority finding for the nurse to report to the provider.
Choice C rationale
Constipation is a common side effect of risperidone due to its anticholinergic properties. While it can cause discomfort, it is not an immediate life-threatening condition. The nurse should address this by encouraging fluid and fiber intake and possibly discussing a stool softener with the provider, but it is not the highest priority.
Choice D rationale
Dry mouth is a common and relatively benign side effect of risperidone. While it can cause discomfort and increase the risk of dental caries, it is not an urgent or life-threatening condition. The nurse can advise the client on strategies to manage this symptom, such as using sugar-free candies or chewing gum. *.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Amnioinfusion is the infusion of saline into the amniotic cavity. It is used to treat umbilical cord compression or meconium staining, not to manage seizures. Initiating an amnioinfusion during a seizure would be an inappropriate and ineffective intervention that would not address the underlying physiological cause of eclampsia or the immediate post-seizure recovery.
Choice B rationale
An internal fetal heart monitor is an invasive procedure requiring the rupture of membranes and insertion of a fetal spiral electrode. This is not the priority action following a seizure. Post-seizure priority is maternal stabilization, ensuring a patent airway, and preventing further injury. External fetal monitoring is the standard first-line approach to assess fetal well-being.
Choice C rationale
Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity, not a treatment for seizures. Administering calcium gluconate would be inappropriate unless magnesium toxicity (e.g., respiratory depression) is suspected. The primary treatment for eclamptic seizures is magnesium sulfate, which works by depressing the central nervous system and blocking neuromuscular conduction.
Choice D rationale
Placing the client on her side is the priority action following a seizure. This position prevents aspiration of secretions, promotes venous return to the heart, and improves placental perfusion. This is a critical safety measure to protect both the mother and the fetus from further harm and is part of standard post-ictal care. *.
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