A nurse is assessing a client who states that she becomes extremely anxious in social gatherings. She tells the nurse that she never feels "good enough" for her coworkers.
The nurse should identify that these findings can indicate which of the following personality disorders.
Histrionic.
Avoidant.
Obsessive-compulsive.
Borderline.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Histrionic personality disorder is characterized by a pervasive pattern of excessive emotionality and attention-seeking behavior. Individuals with this disorder often feel uncomfortable when not the center of attention and may use dramatic, theatrical, or seductive behaviors to attract others. They are not typically withdrawn or anxious in social settings.
Choice B rationale
Avoidant personality disorder is characterized by a pervasive pattern of social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation. The client's statements of becoming "extremely anxious in social gatherings" and never feeling "good enough" for coworkers are hallmark symptoms of this disorder. They actively avoid social situations to prevent rejection.
Choice C rationale
Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is characterized by a preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and mental and interpersonal control. Individuals with this disorder are often rigid and inflexible. They are not typically described as being socially anxious due to feelings of inadequacy, but rather due to a need for control.
Choice D rationale
Borderline personality disorder is characterized by a pervasive pattern of instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and emotions, and marked impulsivity. While individuals with this disorder may experience intense anxiety and fear of abandonment, their core features are related to instability, not a pervasive feeling of not being "good enough" in social settings. .
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The ST segment represents the time from the end of ventricular depolarization to the beginning of ventricular repolarization. It is identified as the flat baseline following the QRS complex and preceding the T wave. This segment is isoelectric, meaning it's at the same level as the PR segment, and any deviation can indicate myocardial ischemia or injury.
Choice B rationale
The peak of the R wave represents the peak of ventricular depolarization. It signifies the moment of maximum electrical activity in the ventricles, as the impulse spreads through the ventricular walls. It is a critical point in the QRS complex, but it is not the location of the ST segment.
Choice C rationale
The beginning of the P wave marks the onset of atrial depolarization. This electrical event represents the contraction of the atria as they pump blood into the ventricles. The P wave is the first deflection in the cardiac cycle and occurs well before the QRS complex and the ST segment.
Choice D rationale
The interval between the S wave and the T wave is not a standard electrocardiographic term. The correct terminology is the ST segment, which is a segment, not an interval, and it specifically follows the S wave and precedes the T wave. An interval would typically include a wave, like the QT interval. *.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Postterm pregnancy, defined as a gestation extending beyond 42 weeks, is not a contraindication for misoprostol. In fact, it is a common indication for labor induction, as the placenta may begin to deteriorate, increasing the risk of fetal distress and meconium aspiration. Misoprostol, a prostaglandin E1 analog, helps ripen the cervix and stimulate uterine contractions. This pharmacologic action is beneficial in initiating labor in postterm pregnancies.
Choice B rationale
Transverse fetal lie is an obstetrical position where the fetus is lying sideways across the uterus. This position poses a significant risk of complications during vaginal birth, including uterine rupture and umbilical cord prolapse. Therefore, any attempt to induce labor with a medication like misoprostol is contraindicated. Cesarean delivery is typically the preferred method of delivery in cases of persistent transverse lie to ensure a safe delivery for both mother and fetus.
Choice C rationale
Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) is a condition where a fetus is smaller than expected for gestational age. It is not a contraindication for misoprostol. Often, IUGR is an indication for labor induction to prevent further fetal compromise. Misoprostol is a commonly used medication for this purpose, as it helps to initiate cervical ripening and uterine contractions, which can lead to a successful vaginal delivery.
Choice D rationale
A history of a cesarean section is a significant contraindication for misoprostol because it substantially increases the risk of uterine rupture. Misoprostol causes potent uterine contractions that can place undue stress on the uterine scar from the previous surgery. The risk of rupture is a life-threatening complication for both the mother and the fetus. Therefore, other methods of labor induction or a planned repeat cesarean section are often considered. *.
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