A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative and has a Jackson-Pratt drain in place. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Maintain the client on bed rest.
Decrease the client's fluid intake.
Apply cold compresses to the site.
Place the right leg in a dependent position.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Maintaining the client on bed rest is not an appropriate action, as it can increase the risk of thromboembolism, infection, or atelectasis after surgery. The nurse should encourage early ambulation and exercise as tolerated by the client.
Choice B reason: Decreasing the client's fluid intake is not an appropriate action, as it can cause dehydration, constipation, or impaired wound healing after surgery. The nurse should encourage adequate hydration and nutrition to promote recovery and drainage.
Choice C reason: Applying cold compresses to the site is not an appropriate action, as it can cause vasoconstriction, inflammation, or pain at the site. The nurse should apply warm compresses to the site to facilitate drainage and reduce swelling.
Choice D reason: Placing the right leg in a dependent position is an appropriate action, as it can promote gravity-assisted drainage from the site and prevent fluid accumulation or infection. The nurse should place the drain below the level of the wound and secure it to prevent dislodgment or tension.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice a: Placing the client in high-Fowler's position is the first action that the nurse should take because it can improve lung expansion and oxygenation, which are priority needs for a client who has a pulmonary embolism and is experiencing dyspnea.
Choice b is not correct because administering heparin to the client is not the first action that the nurse should take, but rather a subsequent action after ensuring adequate oxygenation. Heparin can prevent further clot formation and reduce the risk of complications, but it does not dissolve existing clots or improve respiratory status.
Choice c is not correct because encouraging the client to cough and deep breathe is not the first action that the nurse should take, but rather an ongoing intervention that can help mobilize secretions and prevent atelectasis. However, it may not be effective or feasible for a client who has severe dyspnea.
Choice d is not correct because obtaining the client's vital signs is not the first action that the nurse should take, but rather an assessment that can provide baseline data and monitor changes in condition. However, it does not address the immediate problem of impaired gas exchange or relieve dyspnea.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Pupillary dilation is not a sign of opioid toxicity, but rather of opioid withdrawal or stimulant overdose. Opioid toxicity causes pupillary constriction or miosis.
Choice B reason: Hypotension is a sign of opioid toxicity sign of opioid toxicity, as opioids can depress the central nervous system and reduce cardiac output and peripheral resistance.
Choice C reason: Chest pain is not a sign of opioid toxicity, but rather of cardiac ischemia or infarction, which can be caused by cocaine or other stimulants.
Choice D reason: Diaphoresis is not a sign of opioid toxicity, but rather of opioid withdrawal or hyperthermia, which can be caused by ecstasy or other stimulants.
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