A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative and develops respiratory depression after receiving morphine for pain control. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect the provider to prescribe?
Diphenhydramine
Flumazenil
Calcium gluconate
Naloxone
The Correct Answer is D
D. Naloxone competitively binds to opioid receptors, displacing opioids from these receptors and rapidly reversing their effects. It is the drug of choice for managing opioid-induced respiratory depression and is administered to restore adequate ventilation and prevent respiratory arrest.
A Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine with sedative properties. It is used primarily for allergic reactions and as a sleep aid. Diphenhydramine is not indicated for reversing respiratory depression caused by opioid overdose. It does not antagonize opioid receptors or reverse the effects of opioids.
B. Flumazenil is not effective in reversing respiratory depression caused by opioid overdose. It does not affect opioid receptors or reverse the respiratory depressant effects of opioids.
C. Calcium gluconate is a form of calcium used to treat hypocalcemia or to counteract the cardiac effects of hyperkalemia. It does not reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression. It is not indicated in this situation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D"]
Explanation
Client reports tightness in chest that radiates to left arm: Chest tightness that radiates to the left arm is a classic symptom of myocardial ischemia or infarction (heart attack). This symptom is concerning because it suggests potential heart muscle damage or decreased blood flow to the heart.
States pain as 7 on a scale of 0 to 10: The client rates their chest pain as 7 out of 10. This indicates significant discomfort and suggests that the chest tightness is causing substantial pain. Pain severity is an important indicator in assessing the severity of the cardiac event.
Started to feel nauseous after breakfast: Nausea can be a symptom associated with myocardial ischemia or infarction, particularly when it occurs after physical exertion or a meal. It can be caused by decreased blood flow to the gastrointestinal tract due to compromised cardiac function.
Client is diaphoretic and short of breath: Diaphoresis (excessive sweating) and shortness of breath are additional symptoms that commonly accompany acute myocardial infarction. Diaphoresis occurs due to sympathetic nervous system activation, while shortness of breath can result from decreased cardiac output or pulmonary congestion.
Heart rate irregular and tachycardic: An irregular and tachycardic (rapid) heart rate is abnormal and suggests cardiac dysrhythmia, which can occur in response to myocardial ischemia or infarction. It reflects the heart's attempt to compensate for reduced oxygen delivery to the body.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
B. HbA1c is considered the gold standard for assessing long-term glycemic control in individuals with diabetes. It provides an overall picture of how well blood sugar levels have been controlled over the preceding 2-3 months, helping healthcare providers adjust treatment plans as needed.
A Postprandial (after-meal) blood glucose levels indicate how well blood sugar levels are controlled after eating. While important for immediate assessment of glucose management after meals, it does not provide a comprehensive view of long-term glycemic control.
C. While fasting blood glucose levels are important in daily diabetes management, they do not provide the extended timeframe assessment that HbA1c does for long-term control.
D. OGTT results are not typically used to monitor long-term glycemic control in individuals with established diabetes mellitus. It assesses how the body responds to a glucose load and is not as practical or common for routine monitoring compared to HbA1c.
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