A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure.
Drag words from the choices below to fill in each blank in the following sentence. The client is at risk for developing
The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"B"}
Fluid volume deficit
The client is receiving Furosemide (a diuretic) at a significant dose (80 mg IV three times per day). This medication promotes diuresis to reduce fluid overload in heart failure. The client's weight decreased from 97.5 kg on admission to 90.7 kg on Day 2, indicating a fluid loss of approximately 6.8 kg (about 15 pounds). This substantial weight loss suggests a risk for fluid volume deficit, which can lead to hypovolemia and potential complications such as hypotension and decreased tissue perfusion.
Acute kidney injury (AKI)
The client's BUN level increased from 10 mg/dL on admission to 20 mg/dL on Day 2, which suggests impaired kidney function. This change may indicate a decrease in glomerular filtration rate due to decreased renal perfusion secondary to fluid loss from diuresis. AKI is a known complication in heart failure patients receiving diuretic therapy, especially if there is inadequate monitoring and adjustment of diuretic doses.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
B. HbA1c is considered the gold standard for assessing long-term glycemic control in individuals with diabetes. It provides an overall picture of how well blood sugar levels have been controlled over the preceding 2-3 months, helping healthcare providers adjust treatment plans as needed.
A Postprandial (after-meal) blood glucose levels indicate how well blood sugar levels are controlled after eating. While important for immediate assessment of glucose management after meals, it does not provide a comprehensive view of long-term glycemic control.
C. While fasting blood glucose levels are important in daily diabetes management, they do not provide the extended timeframe assessment that HbA1c does for long-term control.
D. OGTT results are not typically used to monitor long-term glycemic control in individuals with established diabetes mellitus. It assesses how the body responds to a glucose load and is not as practical or common for routine monitoring compared to HbA1c.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
D. Morphine is effective in reducing anxiety due to its sedative and anxiolytic properties. Decreased anxiety can be an indication that morphine is effective in managing symptoms associated with acute heart failure, such as dyspnea and anxiety related to difficulty breathing.
A Morphine is a potent opioid analgesic that can depress the respiratory center, leading to decreased respiratory rate or even respiratory depression in some cases.
B. Vomiting after morphine administration does not indicate effectiveness of the medication in managing acute heart failure symptoms. It is rather a side effect that needs to be managed.
C. Decreased urinary output is not a sign of effectiveness in managing acute heart failure symptoms. It is an adverse effect that needs to be monitored and managed separately.
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