A nurse is assessing a client who has increased intracranial pressure. The nurse should recognize that which of the following is the first sign of deteriorating neurological status?
Cheyne-Stokes respirations
Pupillary dilation
Altered level of consciousness
Decorticate posturing
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Cheyne-Stokes respirations, characterized by a pattern of irregular breathing with periods of apnea, can be a sign of brain stem compression due to increased intracranial pressure. However, it is not typically the first sign of deteriorating neurological status.
Choice B reason: Pupillary dilation, especially if it is unilateral, can indicate pressure on the cranial nerves due to increased intracranial pressure. It is a concerning sign but may not be the first to appear as neurological function deteriorates.
Choice C reason: An altered level of consciousness is often the first sign of deteriorating neurological status in a patient with increased intracranial pressure. Changes in consciousness can range from slight disorientation or confusion to complete unresponsiveness.
Choice D reason: Decorticate posturing, which involves abnormal flexion of the arms with extension of the legs, indicates significant brain injury and is a later sign of increased intracranial pressure, not typically the first sign.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Administering aspirin is one of the first interventions for a client experiencing acute angina because aspirin has antiplatelet properties that help prevent blood clots, which can reduce the risk of a heart attack.
Choice B reason: Measuring blood pressure is important but not the first action to take. It provides valuable information about the cardiovascular status of the client and can influence further treatment decisions.
Choice C reason: Administering nitroglycerin is a priority action for acute angina as it helps to dilate the coronary arteries and relieve chest pain. However, it is typically administered after aspirin unless contraindicated.
Choice D reason: Initiating IV access is an important step in the management of acute angina, as it allows for the administration of medications and fluids if needed. However, it is not the first action to take during an acute angina episode.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is: c. Wear a surgical mask when providing care to the client.
Choice A: Perform a Mantoux skin test on the client
The Mantoux skin test is used to screen for tuberculosis, not pertussis. Pertussis, also known as whooping cough, is a bacterial infection caused by Bordetella pertussis. The Mantoux test would not be relevant or helpful in diagnosing or managing pertussis.
Choice B: Assign the client to a negative-pressure airflow room
Negative-pressure airflow rooms are typically used for airborne infections such as tuberculosis, measles, or varicella. Pertussis is primarily spread through respiratory droplets, not airborne transmission, so a negative-pressure room is not necessary.
Choice C: Wear a surgical mask when providing care to the client
Wearing a surgical mask is appropriate when caring for a client with pertussis. Pertussis is spread through respiratory droplets, and wearing a mask helps prevent the transmission of the bacteria to healthcare workers and other patients.
Choice D: Recommend that the client’s family members receive antiviral therapy
Antiviral therapy is not effective against pertussis, which is a bacterial infection. Instead, antibiotics such as azithromycin or erythromycin are used to treat pertussis and prevent its spread. Therefore, recommending antiviral therapy would not be appropriate.
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