A nurse is assessing a client who has increased intracranial pressure. The nurse should recognize that which of the following is the first sign of deteriorating neurological status?
Cheyne-Stokes respirations
Pupillary dilation
Altered level of consciousness
Decorticate posturing
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Cheyne-Stokes respirations, characterized by a pattern of irregular breathing with periods of apnea, can be a sign of brain stem compression due to increased intracranial pressure. However, it is not typically the first sign of deteriorating neurological status.
Choice B reason: Pupillary dilation, especially if it is unilateral, can indicate pressure on the cranial nerves due to increased intracranial pressure. It is a concerning sign but may not be the first to appear as neurological function deteriorates.
Choice C reason: An altered level of consciousness is often the first sign of deteriorating neurological status in a patient with increased intracranial pressure. Changes in consciousness can range from slight disorientation or confusion to complete unresponsiveness.
Choice D reason: Decorticate posturing, which involves abnormal flexion of the arms with extension of the legs, indicates significant brain injury and is a later sign of increased intracranial pressure, not typically the first sign.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who has taken a high dose of insulin is at significant risk for hypoglycemia. In type 1 diabetes, the body does not produce insulin, so insulin therapy is essential for controlling blood glucose levels. However, if the dose of insulin is too high relative to the patient's dietary intake or physical activity level, it can lead to a rapid decrease in blood glucose levels, resulting in hypoglycemia. Hypoglycemia is defined as a blood glucose level less than 70 mg/dL (3.9 mmol/L) and can cause symptoms such as confusion, sweating, weakness, and in severe cases, seizures or loss of consciousness.
Choice B reason: A client with type 2 diabetes who has not taken any medication may have elevated blood glucose levels but is not typically at immediate risk for hypoglycemia unless they are taking medications that lower blood glucose. Type 2 diabetes is characterized by insulin resistance, and while medication can help manage it, skipping medication does not usually result in hypoglycemia unless other factors are at play.
Choice C reason: An older adult client taking an antibiotic for an infection is not generally at risk for hypoglycemia unless the antibiotic interacts with other medications that the client is taking for diabetes management. Antibiotics themselves do not typically cause hypoglycemia.
Choice D reason: A client who has metabolic syndrome and is taking a statin drug to lower cholesterol levels is not at direct risk for hypoglycemia from the statin medication. Metabolic syndrome is a cluster of conditions that increase the risk for heart disease, stroke, and type 2 diabetes. While statins are used to lower cholesterol levels, they do not have a direct impact on blood glucose levels that would lead to hypoglycemia.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Serosanguineous drainage, which is a mixture of blood and a clear yellow liquid known as serum, is generally expected after surgery. While the amount of 150 mL may seem significant, it is not uncommon in the first hour postoperatively, especially after abdominal surgery. The nurse should continue to monitor the drainage and report if the volume increases significantly or if the drainage becomes bright red, indicating active bleeding.
Choice B reason: Greenish-yellow drainage is typically bile, which can be present in NG tube drainage after abdominal surgery. This type of drainage is not unusual and does not necessarily need to be reported unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms or changes in the patient's condition.
Choice C reason: 100 mL of red drainage is concerning and should be reported to the provider immediately. Red drainage suggests active bleeding, and in the context of the first postoperative hour, it could indicate a complication such as hemorrhage. Prompt assessment and intervention are required to address this potential emergency situation.
Choice D reason: Brown drainage may be old blood or could be related to the contents of the gastrointestinal tract. While 200 mL is a larger volume, brown drainage is not typically as concerning as bright red drainage. However, the nurse should monitor for changes in the color and consistency of the drainage, as well as the patient's vital signs and overall status.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.