A nurse is caring for a client who is menopausal and asks the nurse about the use of herbal therapies to reduce her discomfort. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
"Herbal therapies have no benefits and will not help your discomfort."
"Many herbal products have not undergone long-term testing for safety and efficacy."
"You should begin immediately as they will help you."
"There are no ill effects associated with the use of herbal therapies."
The Correct Answer is B
Rationale:
A. This statement is overly dismissive and does not provide the client with accurate information about herbal therapies. Herbal therapies can have benefits for some individuals, but their efficacy and safety can vary widely.
B. "Many herbal products have not undergone long-term testing for safety and efficacy." This statement provides important information to the client about the potential risks associated with herbal therapies. It emphasizes the need for caution and informed decision-making when considering their use.
C. This statement is premature and does not address the need for further assessment or consideration of potential risks and benefits before starting herbal therapies.
D. This statement is inaccurate, as herbal therapies can have side effects and interactions with medications. It does not adequately inform the client about the potential risks associated with herbal therapies.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Increasing the rate of infusion of IV oxytocin could exacerbate the uterine hyperstimulation and fetal decelerations, potentially leading to fetal distress. It is not appropriate in this situation.
B. Slowing the client's rate of breathing would not address the issue of fetal decelerations caused by uterine hyperstimulation. This action is not relevant to the situation described.
C. Discontinuing the infusion of the IV oxytocin is the correct action in this scenario. The presence of uniform decelerations beginning at the peak of contractions suggests uterine hyperstimulation, likely caused by oxytocin. Discontinuing the oxytocin infusion allows the uterus to rest, reducing the risk of further fetal distress.
D. Decreasing the rate of infusion of the maintenance IV solution is not the priority in this
situation. The issue is uterine hyperstimulation caused by oxytocin, so discontinuing the oxytocin infusion is the appropriate action to take.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Headache can be a common side effect of magnesium sulfate but is usually not concerning unless severe or persistent.
B. A fetal heart rate of 158/min is within the normal range for a fetus and is not typically associated with magnesium sulfate administration.
C. Respirations of 16/min are within the normal range and are not typically associated with magnesium sulfate administration.
D. A urinary output of 40 mL in 2 hours is significantly reduced and may indicate magnesium toxicity or impaired renal function, which should be reported to the provider for further
evaluation and management.
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