A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing seizures due to alcohol withdrawal.
Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
Diazepam.
Naltrexone.
Acamprosate.
Disulfiram.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Diazepam is a benzodiazepine medication commonly used to manage seizures, including those associated with alcohol withdrawal. It acts as a central nervous system depressant, reducing excessive neuronal activity and helping control seizures. Diazepam is considered the first-line medication for managing alcohol withdrawal seizures due to its efficacy and safety profile when administered under medical supervision.
Choice B rationale:
Naltrexone is an opioid receptor antagonist used primarily to treat alcohol and opioid dependence. It does not have a direct anticonvulsant effect and is not indicated for managing seizures associated with alcohol withdrawal. Naltrexone works by blocking the effects of opioids and reducing cravings, making it valuable in substance use disorder treatment but not in the acute management of seizures.
Choice C rationale:
Acamprosate is another medication used in the treatment of alcohol dependence. It helps maintain abstinence from alcohol by reducing cravings and withdrawal symptoms. However, it does not have anticonvulsant properties and is not used to manage seizures associated with alcohol withdrawal. Acamprosate is more focused on supporting long-term sobriety and preventing relapse in individuals
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D"]
Explanation
A. Correct. Reinforcing orientation to time, place, and person helps ground the client in reality, even if their memory is impaired.
B. Incorrect. While it's important to provide the client with some choices, too many options can be overwhelming and confusing.
C. Correct. Providing one simple direction at a time helps prevent confusion and frustration for clients with dementia.
D. Correct. Establishing eye contact while communicating can enhance the client's focus and understanding.
E. Incorrect. It's generally not effective to try to refute a client's delusions using logic.
Redirecting or validating their feelings might be more appropriate.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","E"]
Explanation
Client reports lower back pain and pinkish vaginal discharge.
- Explanation: Lower back pain and pinkish discharge can indicate preterm labor, especially given the client’s history of a previous preterm birth.
Uterine contractions every 8 minutes, palpate strong, duration 30 seconds.
- Explanation: Frequent and strong contractions suggest that labor may be progressing, which is concerning at 33 weeks gestation and needs close monitoring.
FHR baseline 145, minimal variability.
- Explanation: Minimal variability in the fetal heart rate (FHR) can be a sign of fetal distress or a lack of fetal well-being, warranting further evaluation.
Cervical exam indicates 2 cm, 50% effaced, 0 station.
- Explanation: Cervical dilation and effacement at 33 weeks gestation indicate that labor is progressing. Given the client's history of preterm birth, this finding is concerning and requires intervention to try to prevent another preterm delivery.
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