A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing seizures due to alcohol withdrawal.
Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
Diazepam.
Naltrexone.
Acamprosate.
Disulfiram.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Diazepam is a benzodiazepine medication commonly used to manage seizures, including those associated with alcohol withdrawal. It acts as a central nervous system depressant, reducing excessive neuronal activity and helping control seizures. Diazepam is considered the first-line medication for managing alcohol withdrawal seizures due to its efficacy and safety profile when administered under medical supervision.
Choice B rationale:
Naltrexone is an opioid receptor antagonist used primarily to treat alcohol and opioid dependence. It does not have a direct anticonvulsant effect and is not indicated for managing seizures associated with alcohol withdrawal. Naltrexone works by blocking the effects of opioids and reducing cravings, making it valuable in substance use disorder treatment but not in the acute management of seizures.
Choice C rationale:
Acamprosate is another medication used in the treatment of alcohol dependence. It helps maintain abstinence from alcohol by reducing cravings and withdrawal symptoms. However, it does not have anticonvulsant properties and is not used to manage seizures associated with alcohol withdrawal. Acamprosate is more focused on supporting long-term sobriety and preventing relapse in individuals
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"B"},"B":{"answers":"A"},"C":{"answers":"A"},"D":{"answers":"B"},"E":{"answers":"A"},"F":{"answers":"B"}}
Explanation
A. Administer oxytocin. (This is unanticipated as the client is experiencing contractions, and oxytocin might not be needed at this point.)
D. Limit fluid intake to 3,000 mL/day. (Fluid restriction might not be necessary based on the provided notes.)
F. Place client in supine position. (The supine position is generally avoided during pregnancy due to potential compression of the vena cava.)
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Incorrect. Encouraging clients to establish a timeline for grieving might not be appropriate or helpful, as grief processes are individual and non-linear.
B. Correct. Coping with changes in family dynamics is a relevant topic for a support group of this nature, as suicide often brings significant family changes.
C. Incorrect. Focusing on preventing suicide is not the primary goal of this support group; coping and healing are more appropriate.
D. Incorrect. Allowing clients to share negative aspects of their relationship can promote emotional healing and understanding, which is essential in this context.
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