A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing seizures due to alcohol withdrawal.
Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
Diazepam.
Naltrexone.
Acamprosate.
Disulfiram.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Diazepam is a benzodiazepine medication commonly used to manage seizures, including those associated with alcohol withdrawal. It acts as a central nervous system depressant, reducing excessive neuronal activity and helping control seizures. Diazepam is considered the first-line medication for managing alcohol withdrawal seizures due to its efficacy and safety profile when administered under medical supervision.
Choice B rationale:
Naltrexone is an opioid receptor antagonist used primarily to treat alcohol and opioid dependence. It does not have a direct anticonvulsant effect and is not indicated for managing seizures associated with alcohol withdrawal. Naltrexone works by blocking the effects of opioids and reducing cravings, making it valuable in substance use disorder treatment but not in the acute management of seizures.
Choice C rationale:
Acamprosate is another medication used in the treatment of alcohol dependence. It helps maintain abstinence from alcohol by reducing cravings and withdrawal symptoms. However, it does not have anticonvulsant properties and is not used to manage seizures associated with alcohol withdrawal. Acamprosate is more focused on supporting long-term sobriety and preventing relapse in individuals
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Correct. Acetaminophen can be taken concurrently with enoxaparin without significant interactions or increased bleeding risk.
B. Incorrect. Ibuprofen and other nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) should be used with caution in combination with anticoagulants due to an increased risk of bleeding.
C. Incorrect. Naproxen sodium, like other NSAIDs, should be used cautiously with anticoagulants due to potential interactions and bleeding risk.
D. Incorrect. Aspirin is an anticoagulant itself and can increase the risk of bleeding when taken with enoxaparin.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Incorrect. Premature atrial complexes do not typically affect the P-R interval. They are characterized by an early P-wave followed by a QRS complex.
B. Incorrect. Complete heart block is characterized by a dissociation between the P-waves and QRS complexes, resulting in no relationship between atrial and ventricular activity.
C. Incorrect. Atrial fibrillation is characterized by chaotic and irregular atrial activity without distinct P-waves, making the P-R interval irrelevant.
D. Correct. In first-degree atrioventricular block, the P-R interval is prolonged beyond the normal range of 0.12-0.20 seconds. A constant P-R interval of 0.35 seconds indicates a first- degree atrioventricular block.
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