A nurse is caring for a client who is at 41 weeks of gestation and has a positive contraction stress test. For which of the following diagnostic tests should the nurse prepare the client?
Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling
Amnioinfusion
Biophysical profile (BPP)
Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A Reason:
Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS) is not appropriate. This invasive procedure involves sampling blood from the umbilical cord and is not typically used in the context of a positive contraction stress test.
Choice B Reason:
Amnioinfusion is not appropriate. Amnioinfusion is a procedure in which sterile fluid is infused into the amniotic cavity to alleviate conditions such as oligohydramnios. It is not a primary diagnostic test for assessing fetal well-being.
Choice C Reason:
Biophysical profile (BPP) is appropriate. The biophysical profile is a diagnostic test that assesses the well-being of the fetus by evaluating various parameters, including fetal heart rate, fetal breathing movements, fetal movements, fetal tone, and the amniotic fluid volume. This test provides additional information to assess fetal well-being and can help guide decisions about the timing and mode of delivery.
Choice D Reason:
Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) is inappropriate. CVS is a prenatal test used for diagnosing certain genetic conditions but is not indicated in the context of a positive contraction stress test.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Resting tone of 15 mmHg:A resting tone of 15 mmHg is generally acceptable and indicates normal uterine resting pressure, which should be between 5 and 20 mmHg.
B. Frequency of every two minutes. A frequency of every two minutes can be acceptable during labor, especially if the contractions are not too long or intense. The key consideration is the duration and intensity of the contractions.
C. Intensity of 60 to 90 mmHg: This intensity is typically acceptable for labor induction and signifies effective contractions. There’s no indication to stop oxytocin based solely on this intensity range.
D. Duration of 90 to 120 seconds:A contraction lasting 90 to 120 seconds is concerning and indicates potential uterine hyperstimulation, warranting the discontinuation of oxytocin to protect both the mother and fetus from adverse effects.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is D. Prolonged labor
A. Umbilical cord prolapse is more commonly associated with breech presentations or other abnormal fetal positions. It is not a typical complication of occipital brow presentation.
B. Precipitous labor refers to an unusually rapid labor, and it is not a typical complication associated with occipital brow presentation. Prolonged labor is more likely.
C. Hypertonic uterine dysfunction involves excessive uterine contractions, and it is not specifically associated with occipital brow presentation. It is more commonly associated with other factors, such as maternal anxiety or use of oxytocin.
D. Prolonged labor is a complication that can be associated with occipital brow presentation.
Occipital brow presentation involves the fetal head being partially extended, and it can lead to difficulties in descending through the birth canal. This may result in a prolonged labor process.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today