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A nurse is caring for a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and who has a suspected placenta previa.
Which of the following findings support this diagnosis?.

Abdominal pain with scant red vaginal bleeding.

Painless red vaginal bleeding.

Increasing abdominal pain with a nonrelaxed uterus.

Intermittent abdominal pain following the passage of bloody mucus.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

The correct answer is choice B.

Choice A rationale:

Abdominal pain with scant red vaginal bleeding is more indicative of placental abruption, not placenta previa.

Choice B rationale:

Painless red vaginal bleeding is a classic sign of placenta previa. This happens because the placenta is covering the cervix, which can lead to bleeding.

Choice C rationale:

Increasing abdominal pain with a nonrelaxed uterus is more indicative of a condition like uterine rupture or labor, not placenta previa.

Choice D rationale:

Intermittent abdominal pain following the passage of bloody mucus is more likely a sign of labor, not placenta previa.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The correct answer is choice B.

Choice A rationale:

The term “-1” in a vaginal examination does not refer to the effacement of the cervix. Effacement is usually expressed as a percentage.

Choice B rationale:

In a vaginal examination, “-1” refers to the station of the fetus. A “-1” station means that the presenting part of the fetus (usually the head) is 1 cm above the ischial spines.

Choice C rationale:

The term “-1” in a vaginal examination does not refer to the dilation of the cervix. Dilation is usually measured in centimeters, from 0 (no dilation) to 10 (fully dilated).

Choice D rationale:

A “-1” station does not mean that the presenting part is below the ischial spines. It means that it is above the ischial spines.

A. "The most common manifestation of postpartum depression is harming the infant.”. . B. "Postpartum depression usually begins 48 hours after childbirth.”. . C. "It's common for clients who have postpartum depression to exhibit psychotic behavior.”. . D. "Postpartum depression is more likely to occur in women who have a history of depression.”. .

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The correct answer is choice D.

Choice A rationale:

While some mothers with postpartum depression may have thoughts of harming their infant, it’s not the most common manifestation.

Choice B rationale:

Postpartum depression typically begins within the first few weeks after childbirth, not necessarily within 48 hours.

Choice C rationale:

Psychotic behavior is more commonly associated with postpartum psychosis, a rare and severe form of postpartum psychiatric illness, not postpartum depression.

Choice D rationale:

Women with a history of depression are indeed more likely to experience postpartum depression. This is the correct answer.

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A nurse is caring for a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and who has a suspected placenta previa.Which of the following findings support this diagnosis?.

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse on the labor and delivery unit is caring for a client following a vaginal examination by the provider which is documented as: -1. Which of the following interpretations of this finding should the nurse make?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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A nurse is caring for a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and who has a suspected placenta previa.
Which of the following findings support this diagnosis?.