A nurse is caring for a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and who has a suspected placenta previa.
Which of the following findings support this diagnosis?.
Abdominal pain with scant red vaginal bleeding.
Painless red vaginal bleeding.
Increasing abdominal pain with a nonrelaxed uterus.
Intermittent abdominal pain following the passage of bloody mucus.
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is choice B.
Choice A rationale:
Abdominal pain with scant red vaginal bleeding is more indicative of placental abruption, not placenta previa.
Choice B rationale:
Painless red vaginal bleeding is a classic sign of placenta previa. This happens because the placenta is covering the cervix, which can lead to bleeding.
Choice C rationale:
Increasing abdominal pain with a nonrelaxed uterus is more indicative of a condition like uterine rupture or labor, not placenta previa.
Choice D rationale:
Intermittent abdominal pain following the passage of bloody mucus is more likely a sign of labor, not placenta previa.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B.
Choice A rationale:
The term “-1” in a vaginal examination does not refer to the effacement of the cervix. Effacement is usually expressed as a percentage.
Choice B rationale:
In a vaginal examination, “-1” refers to the station of the fetus. A “-1” station means that the presenting part of the fetus (usually the head) is 1 cm above the ischial spines.
Choice C rationale:
The term “-1” in a vaginal examination does not refer to the dilation of the cervix. Dilation is usually measured in centimeters, from 0 (no dilation) to 10 (fully dilated).
Choice D rationale:
A “-1” station does not mean that the presenting part is below the ischial spines. It means that it is above the ischial spines.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D.
Choice A rationale:
While some mothers with postpartum depression may have thoughts of harming their infant, it’s not the most common manifestation.
Choice B rationale:
Postpartum depression typically begins within the first few weeks after childbirth, not necessarily within 48 hours.
Choice C rationale:
Psychotic behavior is more commonly associated with postpartum psychosis, a rare and severe form of postpartum psychiatric illness, not postpartum depression.
Choice D rationale:
Women with a history of depression are indeed more likely to experience postpartum depression. This is the correct answer.
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