A nurse is caring for a client who is admitted to the medical-surgical unit. Client reports, "I'm bloated and my stomach hurts."
The nurse reviews the client's laboratory findings and vital signs.
Select the 5 findings that require immediate follow-up.
Heart rate.
Current medications.
Blood pressure.
Stool results.
Respiratory rate.
WBC count.
Temperature.
Hemoglobin and hematocrit.
Correct Answer : A,B,C,D,H
A, B, C, D, and H. Here is why:.
- A. Heart rate: The client’s heart rate is elevated at 118/min, which could indicate blood loss, dehydration, pain, anxiety, or infection. This finding requires immediate follow-up to assess the cause and intervene as needed.
- B. Current medications: The client is taking ibuprofen 800 mg three times daily PRN for arthritis pain. Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can cause gastric irritation, ulceration, and bleeding. This finding requires immediate follow-up to evaluate the client’s pain level, medication use, and possible alternatives to NSAIDs.
- C. Blood pressure: The client’s blood pressure is low at 90/50 mm Hg, which could indicate hypovolemia, shock, or cardiac dysfunction. This finding requires immediate follow-up to monitor the client’s fluid status, perfusion, and organ function.
- D. Stool results: The client’s stool tested positive for occult blood and H. pylori bacteria. Occult blood indicates gastrointestinal bleeding, which could be related to the client’s abdominal pain and weight loss. H. pylori is a common cause of peptic ulcer disease, which can also cause bleeding and pain. This finding requires immediate follow-up to confirm the diagnosis and initiate treatment with antibiotics and acid-suppressing drugs.
- H. Hemoglobin and hematocrit: The client’s hemoglobin and hematocrit are low at 9.1 g/dL and 27%, respectively. These values indicate anemia, which could be caused by chronic blood loss, nutritional deficiency, or bone marrow suppression. This finding requires immediate follow-up to determine the etiology and severity of the anemia and provide appropriate therapy such as blood transfusion, iron supplementation, or erythropoietin.
The other findings are not as urgent as the ones above:.
- E. Respiratory rate: The client’s respiratory rate is normal at 18/min. There is no evidence of respiratory distress or hypoxia.
- F. WBC count: The client’s WBC count is normal at 6,700/mm3. There is no indication of infection or inflammation.
- G. Temperature: The client’s temperature is slightly elevated at 37.5° C (99.5° F), but not enough to warrant immediate concern. It could be due to stress, dehydration, or a mild infection. The nurse should monitor the temperature trend and report any significant changes or signs of sepsis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B, bradypnea. Bradypnea is abnormally slow breathing, which can be a sign of life-threatening respiratory depression caused by morphine. Respiratory depression is the most serious adverse effect of morphine and can lead to coma and death if not treated promptly. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the child’s respiratory rate and oxygen saturation closely and be prepared to administer naloxone, an opioid antagonist, if needed.
Choice A, euphoria, is wrong because euphoria is a feeling of intense happiness or well-being that is a common side effect of morphine.
Euphoria is not a priority finding and does not indicate a serious complication of morphine.
Choice C, constipation, is wrong because constipation is a common and chronic side effect of morphine that affects the gastrointestinal system.
Constipation can cause discomfort and complications such as bowel obstruction, but it is not a priority finding compared to respiratory depression.
Choice D, sedation, is wrong because sedation is another common side effect of morphine that affects the central nervous system.
Sedation can impair the child’s level of consciousness and ability to respond to stimuli, but it is not as urgent as respiratory depression.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
- . Answer and explanation.
The correct answer is choice C, first-degree atrioventricular block.
This is because the PR interval is longer than normal, which indicates a delay in the conduction of electrical impulses from the atria to the ventricles through the AV node. A normal PR interval is 0.12 to 0.2 seconds, or 3 to 5 small squares on the EKG strip.
In this case, the PR interval is 0.35 seconds, which is more than 5 small squares.
Choice A is wrong because atrial fibrillation is a type of arrhythmia where the atria beat irregularly and rapidly, producing chaotic and variable P waves and an irregular ventricular response.
There is no constant PR interval in atrial fibrillation.
Choice B is wrong because complete heart block is a type of arrhythmia where there is no conduction of electrical impulses from the atria to the ventricles, resulting in independent and dissociated atrial and ventricular rhythms.
There are no consistent P waves or PR intervals in complete heart block.
Choice D is wrong because premature atrial complexes are extra beats that originate from the atria and interrupt the normal sinus rhythm.
They produce abnormal P waves that are different from the sinus P waves, and may have a shorter or longer PR interval depending on the timing of the impulse.
However, they do not cause a constant prolongation of the PR interval.
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