A nurse is caring for a client who has tuberculosis and is taking isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following outcomes indicates that the client is adhering to the medication regimen?
The client tests negative for HIV.
The client has a positive purified protein derivative test.
The client has a negative sputum culture.
The client's liver function test results are within the expected reference range.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
Testing negative for HIV does not mean that the client is taking the antibiotics as prescribed. HIV is a virus that weakens the immune system and makes people more susceptible to tuberculosis, but it is not related to the medication regimen for tuberculosis.
Choice B rationale:
having a positive purified protein derivative test does not mean that the client is taking the antibiotics as prescribed. A purified protein derivative test is a skin test that checks for exposure to tuberculosis bacteria, but it does not measure the effectiveness of the medication regimen. A positive test means that the client has been exposed to tuberculosis bacteria at some point in their life, but it does not mean that they have an active infection or that they are taking the antibiotics as prescribed.
Choice C rationale:
The client has a negative sputum culture. A sputum culture is a test that checks for the presence of tuberculosis bacteria in the mucus that is coughed up from the lungs. A negative sputum culture means that the bacteria are no longer detectable and that the medication regimen is effective. A positive sputum culture means that the bacteria are still present and that the medication regimen may need to be adjusted.
Choice D rationale:
Having normal liver function test results does not mean that the client is taking the antibiotics as prescribed. Liver function tests are blood tests that check for damage to the liver caused by medications or other factors. Isoniazid and rifampin can cause liver damage, so the nurse should monitor the client's liver function tests regularly to prevent or detect any problems. However, having normal liver function test results does not mean that the client is taking the antibiotics as prescribed or that the medication regimen is effective.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Starting a new exercise program is not directly associated with the development of hypomagnesemia.
Choice B rationale:
Starting a new exercise program is not directly associated with the development of hypokalemia.
Choice C rationale:
Starting a new exercise program is not directly associated with the development of hypocalcemia.
Choice D rationale:
Excessive sweating during exercise, especially in hot conditions, can lead to loss of sodium through sweat, potentially resulting in hyponatremia. Lithium can also increase the risk of hyponatremia.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Increased pain relief is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone, but rather an adverse effect of morphine. Naloxone would reduce the analgesic effect of morphine and increase the pain sensation in the client.
Choice B rationale:
Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that reverses the effects of opioids, such as morphine, on the central nervous system. One of the main adverse effects of opioids is respiratory depression, which can lead to hypoxia and death. Naloxone restores normal breathing by blocking the opioid receptors in the brain and spinal cord. Therefore, a therapeutic effect of naloxone is increased respiratory rate.
Choice C rationale:
Decreased blood pressure is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone, but rather a possible side effect of morphine. Naloxone would not affect the blood pressure significantly, unless the client had severe hypotension due to opioid overdose.
Choice D rationale:
Decreased nausea is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone, but rather a possible side effect of morphine. Naloxone would not affect the gastrointestinal system, unless the client had severe nausea and vomiting due to opioid overdose.
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