A nurse is caring for a client who has schizophrenia and has been taking a first-generation medication for several years. The client is exhibiting jerking movements and twitching of the face and tongue. Which of the following is the client experiencing?

Impaired ability to regulate body temperature

Extrapyramidal symptoms

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

Tardive dyskinesia

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

D. Tardive dyskinesia (TD) is a side effect of long-term use of first-generation antipsychotic medications, such as those commonly used to treat schizophrenia. It is characterized by involuntary, repetitive movements of the face, tongue, lips, and other parts of the body.

A. Impaired ability to regulate body temperature is more commonly associated with conditions such as heatstroke or certain neurological disorders affecting the hypothalamus, and it typically presents with symptoms such as fever or hypothermia.

B. Extrapyramidal symptoms encompass a range of movement disorders caused by dysfunction of the extrapyramidal system, which includes the basal ganglia.

C. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a rare but potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications, characterized by fever, altered mental status, muscle rigidity, and autonomic dysfunction.

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Delusions, hallucinations, and alterations in speech are characteristic symptoms of psychosis, which can occur in various psychiatric disorders such as schizophrenia. Dopamine antagonists, also known as antipsychotic medications, are the primary pharmacological treatment for psychosis.

A Mood stabilizers are primarily used to manage mood swings in conditions like bipolar disorder. While they can help stabilize mood, they are not typically the first-line treatment for psychotic symptoms like delusions and hallucinations.

B. SSRIs are antidepressant medications that primarily target serotonin levels in the brain. They are used to treat conditions such as depression, anxiety, and some other mood disorders.

D. Benzodiazepines are a class of medications primarily used to treat anxiety, insomnia, and seizures.

A. Relapses signal failure of the abstinence plan, and the plan must be changed. B. Relapses may indicate that the client has very little willpower. C. Relapses should be expected and be looked at as an opportunity. D. Relapses are rare and unlikely to occur.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

C. This statement emphasizes a crucial aspect of relapse prevention in substance use disorder treatment. Relapses are common in the recovery process and should not be seen as failures but rather as opportunities for learning and growth.

A. Relapses are common in the course of recovery from substance use disorders and do not necessarily indicate failure.

B. Relapse is not solely a result of willpower or lack thereof. It involves various factors, including biological, psychological, social, and environmental influences.

D. Relapses are common in the journey of recovery from substance use disorders, especially in the early stages when individuals are still learning to navigate triggers and develop coping strategies.

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A nurse is caring for a client who has schizophrenia and has been taking a first-generation medication for several years. The client is exhibiting jerking movements and twitching of the face and tongue. Which of the following is the client experiencing?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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