A nurse is caring for a client who has developed a heart rate of 38/min and reports tremors and feeling faint. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering?
Magnesium sulfate
Digoxin
Atropine sulfate
Diltiazem
The Correct Answer is C
This is because the client is experiencing bradycardia, which is a slow heart rate of less than 60/min. Bradycardia can cause decreased cardiac output, which can lead to symptoms such as tremors, fainting, dizziness, chest pain, shortness of breath, and hypotension. Some causes of bradycardia are sinus node dysfunction, atrioventricular block, medication side effects, hypothyroidism, hypothermia, and increased vagal tone.
The nurse should anticipate administering atropine sulfate, which is an anticholinergic drug that blocks the action of the vagus nerve on the heart and increases the heart rate and conduction. Atropine sulfate is the first-line drug for symptomatic bradycardia and can be given intravenously or intramuscularly. The nurse should monitor the client's vital signs, cardiac rhythm, and response to the medication. The nurse should also prepare for other interventions, such as transcutaneous pacing or permanent pacemaker insertion, if atropine sulfate is ineffective or contraindicated.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The nurse should hang the drainage bag below the level of the client's abdomen to facilitate gravity drainage of fluid and waste products from the peritoneal cavity. The other options are incorrect because they may cause discomfort, infection, or inadequate dialysis.
Correct Answer is ["100"]
Explanation
The correct answer is 100 mL/hr. To calculate this, use the formula: rate (mL/hr) = volume (mL) / time (hr).
Therefores: rate = 150 mL / 1.5 hr = 100 mL/hr.
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