A nurse is caring for a client who has depression.
After two days of treatment, the nurse notices that the client is suddenly more active and there are no longer signs of a depressive state.
Which of the following interventions should the nurse recommend for the plan of care?
Monitor the client’s whereabouts at all times.
Encourage family to take the client out of the facility for short periods of time.
Ask the client why her behavior has changed.
Reward the client for her change in behavior.
The Correct Answer is A
Answer and explanation
Choice A rationale:
Impaired judgment is a cognitive symptom of schizophrenia, not a positive symptom. It involves difficulties with decisionmaking, problem-solving, and understanding consequences. While it's a significant feature of schizophrenia, it doesn't reflect an excess or distortion of normal functions, which is the hallmark of positive symptoms.
Choice B rationale:
Dysphoria refers to a depressed mood or a state of unhappiness and dissatisfaction. It's a negative symptom of schizophrenia, characterized by a decrease or absence of normal functions. It's not considered a positive symptom as it doesn't involve an excess or distortion of normal processes.
Choice C rationale:
Disorganized speech is a hallmark positive symptom of schizophrenia. It involves significant disruptions in the way a person speaks and communicates. It can manifest in several ways, including: Derailment: Abrupt shifts in topic without logical connection
Tangentiality: Responding to questions in irrelevant or oblique ways
Incoherence: Speech that is fragmented and difficult to understand
Loose associations: Combining words or phrases in a way that lacks logical sense
Neologisms: Creating new words or phrases that have meaning only to the speaker
Word salad: Severely disorganized speech that is essentially incomprehensible
Disorganized speech is considered a positive symptom because it reflects an excess or distortion of normal speech processes. It's a core feature of schizophrenia and often has a significant impact on communication and social functioning.
Choice D rationale:
Anhedonia is the inability to experience pleasure. It's a negative symptom of schizophrenia, characterized by a decrease or absence of normal emotional responses. It's not considered a positive symptom as it doesn't involve an excess or distortion of normal processes.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Disorientation is a significant neurological finding that can signal a serious adverse reaction to lorazepam, particularly in older adults. It's crucial to report it immediately to the provider for prompt assessment and intervention.
Lorazepam, a benzodiazepine, can cause central nervous system (CNS) depression, which can manifest as disorientation, confusion, memory impairment, and even delirium.
Older adults are more vulnerable to CNS depressant effects due to age-related physiological changes, such as decreased metabolism and clearance of medications, as well as increased brain sensitivity.
Early identification and management of disorientation can prevent potential complications, such as falls, injuries, and worsening cognitive decline.
Choice B rationale:
Increased anxiety can be a paradoxical reaction to lorazepam, but it's not as immediately concerning as disorientation in terms of potential for serious harm.
The nurse should still monitor anxiety levels and report any significant changes to the provider, as dosage adjustments or alternative medications may be necessary.
Choice C rationale:
Blurred vision is a common side effect of lorazepam, but it's typically mild and transient.
It's important to assess the severity and duration of blurred vision and report it to the provider if it persists or interferes with daily activities.
Choice D rationale:
Anorexia, or loss of appetite, can be a side effect of lorazepam, but it's not as urgent as disorientation.
The nurse should monitor the patient's nutritional intake and weight, and report any significant changes to the provider.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Initiating one-to-one nursing observation is the most crucial and immediate action the nurse should take in this scenario. Here's a detailed explanation:
Prioritizes Safety: The client has a recent history of a suicide attempt, indicating a high risk for self-harm. One-to-one observation ensures continuous monitoring, enabling prompt intervention if the client engages in any self-injurious behaviors or attempts. It prioritizes the client's safety and prevents further harm.
Addresses Acute Risk: The client's mental health conditions, including depression, substance abuse, and anorexia nervosa, create a complex and acute risk profile. One-to-one observation allows for close assessment of the client's mental state, behaviors, and potential triggers, enabling early identification of any escalating risk and timely implementation of appropriate interventions.
Provides Support and Stabilization: The presence of a dedicated nurse provides emotional support, reassurance, and a sense of security for the client during this vulnerable period. It can help reduce anxiety and distress, promote engagement in treatment, and facilitate stabilization.
Gathers Essential Information: While observing the client, the nurse can gather valuable information about their behavior patterns, coping mechanisms, communication style, and potential triggers. This information is essential for developing a comprehensive and individualized treatment plan.
Facilitates Trust and Rapport: One-to-one observation provides an opportunity for the nurse to establish a therapeutic relationship with the client, build trust, and promote open communication. This foundation is crucial for effective assessment, intervention, and ongoing care
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