A nurse is caring for a client who has anemia. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse anticipate with the client's condition?
Bradycardia
Headache
Flushed skin color
Heat intolerance
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason:
Bradycardia is incorrect. Bradycardia refers to a slow heart rate, and while anaemia can lead to an increased heart rate (tachycardia) as the body tries to compensate for the decreased oxygen levels, it is not typically associated with bradycardia.
Choice B reason:
Headache Anaemia is a condition characterized by a decreased number of red blood cells or a decrease in the amount of haemoglobin in the blood, leading to reduced oxygen-carrying capacity. This can result in decreased oxygen delivery to various tissues and organs, including the brain. As a result, clients with anaemia often experience symptoms such as fatigue, weakness, and headaches.
Choice C reason:
Flushed skin colour - Anaemia is more likely to cause paleness of the skin (pallor) due to the decreased haemoglobin levels, rather than flushed skin colour.
Choice D reason:
Heat intolerance - Heat intolerance is not a typical symptom of anaemia. It might be seen in conditions affecting the thyroid or related to hormonal imbalances, but it is not directly related to anaemia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Vigorously strip the chest tube twice daily. The nurse should clarify the prescription to "vigorously strip the chest tube twice daily" with the provider. Stripping or milking a chest tube is generally not recommended, as it can cause damage to the tube and lead to complications. The movement of fluid and air in the chest tube should be allowed to occur naturally based on the patient's own respiratory effort.
Choice B Reason:
Assist the client out of bed three times daily - This is a reasonable activity for a client with a chest tube, as mobility and deep breathing can help prevent complications.
Choice C Reason:
Notify the provider when tiddling ceases - Monitoring for tiddling (fluctuations in the water seal chamber with respiration) and notifying the provider when tiddling stops is important, as it might indicate a potential issue with the chest tube placement or functioning.
Choice D Reason:
Administer morphine 2 mg IV bolus every 3 hr PRN for pain - Administering pain relief for the client is appropriate and helps manage their comfort. Pain control is important to encourage deep breathing and prevent complications related to shallow breathing due to pain.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Listening to the client's bowel sounds should not be implemented. While assessing bowel sounds is important, it is not the highest priority in this situation. The client's low serum potassium level indicates the potential for serious cardiac arrhythmias, so actions related to monitoring and addressing this electrolyte imbalance are more critical.
Choice B reason:
Initiate cardiac monitoring for the client is the correct answer. A serum potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L is significantly low and can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Initiating cardiac monitoring is crucial to assess the client's heart rhythm and ensure that any potential abnormalities are identified promptly.
Choice C reason:
Check the client's hand grasps should not be implemented. Assessing the client's hand grasps can provide information about muscle strength, but it is not the immediate priority when the client has a critically low potassium level.
Choice D reason:
Administer an IV potassium drip should not be implemented. Administering IV potassium is important for correcting the potassium imbalance, but the priority is to assess and monitor the client's cardiac status first. Rapid administration of potassium can lead to cardiac arrhythmias, so it's important to ensure the heart's stability through cardiac monitoring before administering potassium.
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