A nurse is caring for a client who has an IUD and reports abdominal pain during sexual intercourse.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Assess for signs of pelvic inflammatory disease
Instruct the client to check the string length
Advise the client to use a backup contraceptive method
Schedule an appointment for IUD removal
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is choice A. The nurse should assess for signs of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), which is an infection of the female reproductive organs that can be caused by sexually transmitted bacteria. PID can cause abdominal pain during sexual intercourse, as well as other symptoms such as fever, unusual vaginal discharge, and bleeding between periods. PID can lead to serious complications such as infertility and ectopic pregnancy if left untreated.
Choice B is wrong because checking the string length of the IUD is not a priority action. The string length may change due to normal variations in the position of the uterus and cervix, and does not indicate a problem with the IUD. However, if the string is missing or longer than usual, it may suggest that the IUD has moved or expelled, and the client should see a provider.
Choice C is wrong because advising the client to use a backup contraceptive method is not a priority action. The IUD is a highly effective form of birth control that does not require additional methods unless the client wants to prevent STIs. However, if the client has an STI that causes PID, using a condom may help prevent further infection and transmission.
Choice D is wrong because scheduling an appointment for IUD removal is not a priority action. The IUD does not cause PID, but it may increase the risk of infection shortly after insertion, especially if the client has an STI. The risk of PID from IUD use is very low (less than 1%) and usually disappears after 3 weeks of placement. Removing the IUD may not cure PID and may expose the client to unwanted pregnancy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A.History of migraine headaches with aura is a contraindication for using COCs because it increases the risk of stroke.
Some possible explanations for the other choices are:
- Choice B is wrong because history of dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia is not a contraindication for using COCs.In fact, COCs may help reduce menstrual pain and bleeding.
- Choice C is wrong because history of acne vulgaris and hirsutism is not a contraindication for using COCs.In fact, COCs may help improve acne and hirsutism by reducing androgen levels.
- Choice D is wrong because history of iron-deficiency anemia and fatigue is not a contraindication for using COCs.In fact, COCs may help prevent iron-deficiency anemia by reducing menstrual blood loss.
Normal ranges for relevant parameters are:
- Blood pressure: <140/90 mmHg
- Body mass index: 18.5–24.9 kg/m
- Hemoglobin: 12–16 g/dL for women
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is choice C. Increased risk of HIV transmission.According to some sources, spermicide that contains nonoxynol-9 (N-9) can irritate sensitive genital tissues, especially if used several times a day.
This irritation can increase the risk of HIV and other sexually transmitted infections by giving infections an easy pathway into the body.
Choice A is wrong because vaginal dryness is not a common side effect of spermicide.
Choice B is wrong because bacterial vaginosis is not directly linked to spermicide use.
Choice D is wrong because cervical cancer is not caused by spermicide use.
Spermicide is a type of contraceptive that works by stopping sperm from reaching an egg.
It comes in different forms such as gels, creams, foams, films or suppositories.It needs to be inserted into the vagina before sex and used correctly every time for it to be effective.
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