A nurse is caring for a client who has a thrombus and is receiving a continuous infusion of heparin. The client asks the nurse how long it will take for the heparin to dissolve the clot.
Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
"The time it takes for heparin to dissolve a clot depends on the size of the clot.".
"The time it takes for heparin to dissolve a clot varies between clients.".
"Usually, it takes at least 2 to 3 days for heparin to dissolve a clot.".
"Heparin prevents new clots from forming rather than dissolving existing ones.".
The Correct Answer is D
Heparin is an anticoagulant that is used to decrease the clotting ability of the blood and help prevent harmful clots from forming in blood vessels 1.
However, heparin will not dissolve blood clots that have already formed, but it may prevent the clots from becoming larger and causing more serious problems 12.

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because heparin does not dissolve existing clots. Instead, it works to prevent new clots from forming 12.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
NPH insulin has an onset of action of about 1 to 2 hours, peaks in 4 to 12 hours, and lasts up to 24 hours. Given the administration at 0700, the onset of action would typically occur between 0800 and 0900. Hypoglycemia is most likely to occur during the onset or peak periods due to the insulin's glucose-lowering effect.
Among the options:
- A. 0715: Too early, as NPH insulin's onset is not within 15 minutes.
- B. 0800: Within the onset window (1 hour after administration), making it a plausible time to observe for hypoglycemia.
- C. 0900: Also within the onset window (2 hours after administration), another reasonable time to monitor.
- D. 1000: Slightly beyond the typical onset but still early in the action profile, where hypoglycemia could occur if glucose levels drop.
Since the question asks for the time to observe for hypoglycemia caused by the onset, the earliest time within the onset window is most appropriate. Thus, B. 0800 is the best answer, as it aligns with the start of NPH insulin’s onset period.
Final Answer: B. 0800
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Protamine is a medication that can be used to reverse the effects of heparin in the event of an overdose.
It binds to heparin and neutralizes its anticoagulant effects.
Choice B is not correct because glucagon is used to treat low blood sugar, not heparin overdose.
Choice C is not correct because oxygen is not a medication and is not used to treat heparin overdose.
Choice D is not correct because insulin is used to lower high blood sugar levels, not to treat heparin overdose.
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