A nurse is caring for a client who has a pulmonary embolism and is receiving therapy with unfractionated heparin. Which of the following laboratory results indicates that the therapy is effective?
PT 12 seconds.
aPTT 75 seconds.
INR 1.1.
Platelets 200,000/mm².
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
A PT (Prothrombin Time) of 12 seconds is not indicative of the effectiveness of heparin therapy for a pulmonary embolism. PT measures the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and it is more relevant to monitor in patients on warfarin therapy.
Choice B rationale:
The aPTT (Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time) of 75 seconds is the correct choice as it reflects the effectiveness of unfractionated heparin therapy. Heparin works by inhibiting clotting factors in the intrinsic pathway, and the aPTT is used to monitor heparin's anticoagulant effect. The normal range for aPTT is typically 25-35 seconds.
Choice C rationale:
An INR (International Normalized Ratio) of 1.1 is not the appropriate parameter to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. INR is primarily used to monitor the effectiveness of oral anticoagulants like warfarin, not heparin.
Choice D rationale:
The platelet count of 200,000/mm² is not a suitable parameter to evaluate the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Platelet count is important for assessing the risk of bleeding or clotting disorders but does not directly measure the impact of heparin on clotting factors.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A capillary refill of less than 1 second is a normal finding and indicates adequate peripheral perfusion. It is not a cause for concern in this postoperative client.
Choice B rationale:

The presence of a pulse deficit should be reported to the provider because it suggests a discrepancy between the apical and radial pulses, indicating potential cardiovascular compromise or inadequate arterial perfusion.
Choice C rationale:
A systolic blood pressure 10 points lower than before surgery can be a normal response to anesthesia or surgery and may not necessarily require immediate reporting unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms or vital sign abnormalities.
Choice D rationale:
Pulse oximetry at 96% is within the normal range for oxygen saturation and does not warrant immediate reporting. However, if the client is experiencing respiratory distress or other concerning symptoms, it should be addressed promptly.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should not include the statement, "If your breath smells fruity, decrease your oral intake.”. in the discharge teaching for diabetic ketoacidosis. Fruity breath odor is a sign of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) due to ketone production. Decreasing oral intake would not address the underlying problem, and the client should be encouraged to seek medical attention promptly if experiencing this symptom.
Choice B rationale:
This is the correct choice. The nurse should instruct the client to check their urine for ketones if their blood sugar is greater than 300 milligrams per deciliter. High blood sugar levels can lead to ketone production, and monitoring ketones in the urine can help assess the severity of DKA and guide appropriate interventions.
Choice C rationale:
The statement, "Drink one liter of fluids daily.”. is not appropriate for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis. Clients with DKA often have fluid imbalances, and their fluid needs should be assessed and managed by healthcare professionals based on individual factors and laboratory values.
Choice D rationale:
The statement, "When nausea is present, drink chilled water.”. is not specific to diabetic ketoacidosis and may not be appropriate for all clients. Nausea can be caused by various factors, and addressing the underlying cause is important. Drinking chilled water may not necessarily alleviate nausea.
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