A nurse is caring for a client who has a pulmonary embolism and is receiving therapy with unfractionated heparin. Which of the following laboratory results indicates that the therapy is effective?
PT 12 seconds.
aPTT 75 seconds.
INR 1.1.
Platelets 200,000/mm².
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
A PT (Prothrombin Time) of 12 seconds is not indicative of the effectiveness of heparin therapy for a pulmonary embolism. PT measures the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and it is more relevant to monitor in patients on warfarin therapy.
Choice B rationale:
The aPTT (Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time) of 75 seconds is the correct choice as it reflects the effectiveness of unfractionated heparin therapy. Heparin works by inhibiting clotting factors in the intrinsic pathway, and the aPTT is used to monitor heparin's anticoagulant effect. The normal range for aPTT is typically 25-35 seconds.
Choice C rationale:
An INR (International Normalized Ratio) of 1.1 is not the appropriate parameter to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. INR is primarily used to monitor the effectiveness of oral anticoagulants like warfarin, not heparin.
Choice D rationale:
The platelet count of 200,000/mm² is not a suitable parameter to evaluate the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Platelet count is important for assessing the risk of bleeding or clotting disorders but does not directly measure the impact of heparin on clotting factors.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Notifying the surgeon of the temperature elevation is important, but it is not the nurse's priority. A temperature elevation after abdominal surgery could be a sign of infection, but the immediate action should be to assess the surgical incision for any signs of infection.
Choice B rationale:
Encouraging the client to drink more fluids is a good practice to maintain hydration and promote recovery after surgery. However, it is not the nurse's priority in this situation. The elevated temperature and potential infection take precedence over increasing fluid intake.
Choice C rationale:
This is the correct answer because the nurse's priority is to assess the surgical incision for signs of infection. An elevated temperature is a significant finding after surgery, and it may indicate a surgical site infection, which requires prompt assessment and intervention.
Choice D rationale:
Monitoring vital signs every 4 hours is an essential nursing intervention after surgery, but it is not the priority when the client has an elevated temperature and a recent surgical incision.
The nurse must first assess for signs of infection before proceeding with routine vital sign monitoring.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A defined area of cool, boggy skin is not indicative of a stage 2 pressure injury. Stage 2 pressure injuries involve partial-thickness skin loss, usually appearing as a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed, without slough or bruising.
Choice B rationale:
A shallow crater involving the epidermis is characteristic of a stage 2 pressure injury. It presents as a partial-thickness skin loss with the loss of the epidermis, and the wound may be superficial and appear as an abrasion, blister, or shallow ulcer.
Choice C rationale:
The reddened area that does not blanch is more indicative of an early-stage pressure injury (Stage 1). In Stage 1, the skin remains intact, but there is non-blanch-able erythema indicating damage to the skin and underlying tissue.
Choice D rationale:
Undermining or tunneling of the skin is not specific to stage 2 pressure injuries. These features may be observed in more advanced stages of pressure injuries, such as stages 3 and 4, where there is full-thickness skin loss with damage to the subcutaneous tissue and underlying structures.
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