A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for vancomycin 1 g IV intermittent infusion over 30 min every 12 hr. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Request a serum trough level blood draw for 60 min after completion of infusion.
Change the infusion site after each dose administration.
Contact the provider for prescription clarification.
Request a serum peak level to be drawn 30 min prior to infusion.
The Correct Answer is C
A. Requesting a serum trough level blood draw for 60 min after completion of infusion is incorrect. Trough levels should be drawn just before the next dose (not after infusion completion) to ensure therapeutic drug levels and avoid toxicity.
B. Changing the infusion site after each dose administration is incorrect. Vancomycin can cause phlebitis, but routine site changes after every dose are unnecessary unless signs of irritation or infiltration are present.
C. Contacting the provider for prescription clarification is correct. Vancomycin should be infused over at least 60 minutes to reduce the risk of Red Man Syndrome, a histamine reaction that can cause flushing, hypotension, and rash. A 30-minute infusion is too rapid and should be adjusted.
D. Requesting a serum peak level to be drawn 30 min prior to infusion is incorrect. Peak levels are drawn 30–60 minutes after infusion completion, not before infusion. Trough levels, not peak levels, are used to monitor vancomycin dosing.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Albuterol: This is a bronchodilator that can cause side effects such as increased heart rate and chest pain due to its stimulant effect on the cardiovascular system.
B. Furosemide: This diuretic is unlikely to cause chest pain directly; however, it may lead to electrolyte imbalances that can indirectly affect cardiac function.
C. Digoxin: While digoxin has several potential side effects, chest pain is not commonly recognized as a direct adverse effect of this medication.
D. Atenolol: This medication is a beta-blocker used to manage hypertension and is unlikely to cause chest pain; rather, it may help alleviate angina symptoms.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Nitrofurantoin can cause brown-colored urine due to its pigment, and clients should be informed to report this as a common side effect and not a cause for alarm.
B. Nitrofurantoin is an antibiotic used to treat urinary tract infections and does not provide relief for peripheral nerve pain.
C. Nitrofurantoin should not be crushed, as it can affect the medication's absorption and effectiveness.
D. A cough is not a typical side effect of nitrofurantoin; however, if the client develops a cough, it could be a sign of a serious side effect, and they should notify the provider.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.