A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for epoetin alfa. Which of the following routes should the nurse plan to use for administration?
Oral
Subcutaneous
Transdermal
Intranasal
The Correct Answer is B
B. Epoetin alfa is often administered subcutaneously to provide a slow and sustained release of the medication into the bloodstream. Subcutaneous administration allows for easy access to fatty tissue beneath the skin and provides a suitable absorption rate for the medication.
A. Epoetin alfa is a protein-based medication that would be broken down by digestive enzymes in the gastrointestinal tract, rendering it ineffective if taken orally. Therefore, oral administration is not suitable for epoetin alfa.
C. Epoetin alfa molecules are too large to pass through the skin barrier effectively. Transdermal delivery systems are typically used for medications that are small, lipid-soluble, and can penetrate the skin's layers to enter the bloodstream.
D. Epoetin alfa is not formulated for absorption through nasal mucosa. Intranasal administration is generally reserved for medications that can be absorbed through the nasal membranes, such as certain hormones or medications for nasal conditions.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Nitroglycerin is commonly used to treat angina (chest pain) and works by dilating blood vessels to increase blood flow to the heart. Both sildenafil and nitroglycerin can cause vasodilation, leading to a significant drop in blood pressure. Concomitant use of sildenafil with nitroglycerin or other nitrates is contraindicated due to the risk of severe hypotension (dangerously low blood pressure) and cardiovascular collapse.
B. Albuterol is a bronchodilator used to treat asthma and COPD by relaxing the airway muscles. It does not have significant interactions with sildenafil related to blood pressure.
C. Furosemide is a loop diuretic used to treat fluid retention (edema) and hypertension by increasing urine output. Furosemide does not have specific contraindications with sildenafil. While both
medications can cause a decrease in blood pressure, the concurrent use of furosemide and sildenafil is typically managed by monitoring for signs of hypotension rather than being contraindicated outright.
D. Indomethacin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) used to treat pain and inflammation by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis. Indomethacin does not have specific contraindications with sildenafil. While NSAIDs can potentially cause renal impairment and fluid retention, leading to increased blood pressure, this is not a direct contraindication for the use of sildenafil.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
D. Amiodarone is a potent antiarrhythmic agent that affects multiple ion channels (sodium, potassium, calcium channels) and has properties of both Class I, II, III, and IV antiarrhythmics. Amiodarone is the drug of choice for treating life-threatening ventricular dysrhythmias, including ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation. It can be administered rapidly via intravenous bolus followed by infusion to stabilize the heart rhythm and prevent recurrence.
A. Digoxin is more commonly used for atrial dysrhythmias, such as atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter, rather than ventricular dysrhythmias. It does not have rapid anti-dysrhythmic effects suitable for life- threatening ventricular arrhythmias.
B. Dopamine is typically used to support blood pressure and cardiac output in shock states rather than for direct management of ventricular dysrhythmias.
C. Verapamil is used for atrial dysrhythmias, such as atrial fibrillation or supraventricular tachycardia, but not typically for ventricular dysrhythmias. In fact, it can worsen ventricular dysrhythmias and is contraindicated in some cases of ventricular tachycardia.
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