A nurse is caring for a client who has a gonococcal infection and has been prescribed an 1M injection of ceftriaxone. The client refuses the medication because they are afraid of needles. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
"You must take this medication because there is no other option to treat this infection."
"Refusing the injection means you will not get better."
"You should not feel anything more than a minor sting from the injection."
"l will discuss other treatments options with your provider."
The Correct Answer is D
The provider should be consulted as other oral alternative exist. It is important for the nurse to understand his or her role as a client’s advocate. In this, role, she should acknowledge the client’s concerns and address the issues without coercing or threatening the client.
A- This does not respect client’s autonomy
B- This statement is inappropriate as the nurse should not use threats to induce fear
C- This statement fails to appreciate the client’s concerns
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, and it is particularly relevant for clients taking warfarin because warfarin works by inhibiting the synthesis of certain clotting factors, including factors II, VII, IX, and X, which are involved in the PT pathway. Monitoring PT levels helps ensure that the client is receiving an appropriate dose of warfarin to prevent clot formation without causing excessive bleeding.
B. Total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) is a test used to assess iron levels in the blood and is unrelated to warfarin therapy.
C. WBC (White Blood Cell count) is a test used to assess the number of white blood cells in the blood and is unrelated to warfarin therapy.
D. PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time) is a test used to evaluate the intrinsic and common pathways of the coagulation cascade. It is used in the monitoring of heparin anticoagulant therapy. It is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Diuretics decrease potassium reabsorption in the renal tubules leading to urinary loss. hypokalemia can lead to an apparent overdose of digoxin even if the dose is within the therapeutic range. taking a high ceiling diuretic leads to hypokalemia which worsens digoxin toxicity. It is essential to monitor potassium levels in clients taking digoxin to prevent complications.
B, C, D- These histories do not predispose to digoxin toxicity
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