A nurse is assessing a client who has received oxycodone. The nurse notes that the client's respiratory rate is 8/min. The nurse should identify that which of the following is the pathophysiology for the client's respiratory rate?
Oxycodone blocks the sodium channel suspending nerve conduction.
Oxycodone inhibits prostaglandin synthesis.
Oxycodone promotes vasodilation of cranial arteries.
Oxycodone uses central nervous system depression.
The Correct Answer is D
A. Oxycodone primarily exerts its analgesic effects through binding to opioid receptors and modulating neurotransmitter release, rather than blocking sodium channels.
B. Oxycodone does not directly inhibit prostaglandin synthesis; this mechanism is associated with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).
C. Oxycodone does not promote vasodilation of cranial arteries. This mechanism is more commonly associated with medications used to treat migraines, such as triptans.
D. Oxycodone is an opioid analgesic that acts centrally on the nervous system to depress respiratory drive, leading to respiratory depression, especially at higher doses.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B"]
Explanation
A. Advise the client to change positions slowly: The client's symptoms of dizziness and light- headedness upon standing suggest orthostatic hypotension, which can be managed by advising the client to change positions slowly to minimize blood pressure drops upon standing.
B. Check the client for orthostatic hypotension. Monitor the client for dysrhythmias: The client's symptoms, along with the report of waking up at night to void, are suggestive of orthostatic hypotension, a drop in blood pressure upon standing. Checking for orthostatic hypotension and monitoring for dysrhythmias are appropriate nursing actions to assess and manage this condition.
C. Advise the client to restrict potassium intake: Restricting potassium intake is not indicated based on the client's symptoms of dizziness and light-headedness. This action is not relevant to the situation described.
D. Advise the client to take the medication before bedtime: There is no indication in the scenario provided that medication timing is related to the client's symptoms. This action is not relevant to addressing the client's reported symptoms.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Verapamil: Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker primarily used to treat supraventricular
tachycardias, not ventricular dysrhythmias. It is not typically used for life-threatening ventricular dysrhythmias.
B. Digoxin: Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside used primarily for atrial fibrillation and heart failure, not ventricular dysrhythmias. It is not typically used for life-threatening ventricular
dysrhythmias.
C. Dopamine: Dopamine is a sympathomimetic medication used for hemodynamic support in hypotension and shock. While it may be used in some cases of unstable bradycardia, it is not the first-line medication for life-threatening ventricular dysrhythmias.
D. Amiodarone: Amiodarone is an antiarrhythmic medication used for the treatment of various ventricular and supraventricular dysrhythmias, including life-threatening ventricular
dysrhythmias such as ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation. It is often used as a first-line medication for these conditions due to its efficacy and safety profile. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate administering amiodarone for the client's life-threatening ventricular dysrhythmia.
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