A nurse is caring for a client who has a fecal impaction. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when digitally evacuating the stool?

Place the client in the lithotomy position.

Elicit a vagal response by performing gentle rectal stimulation.

Administer oral bisacodyl 30 min prior to the procedure.

Insert a lubricated gloved finger and advance along the rectal wall.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

- A. Incorrect. The lithotomy position is not appropriate for this procedure, as it can cause discomfort and embarrassment to the client. The nurse should place the client in a left lateral Sims' position with the right knee flexed for better access to the rectum and to reduce pressure on the abdominal organs.

- B. Incorrect. The nurse should avoid eliciting a vagal response, as it can cause bradycardia, hypotension, and syncope in some clients. The nurse should monitor the client's vital signs and stop the procedure if signs of vagal stimulation occur.

- C. Incorrect. Oral bisacodyl is a stimulant laxative that can cause abdominal cramping, diarrhea, and electrolyte imbalance. It is not indicated for fecal impaction, as it can worsen the condition by increasing the bulk and hardness of the stool. The nurse should administer an enema or a stool softener before attempting digital evacuation.

- D. Correct. The nurse should insert a lubricated gloved finger and advance along the rectal wall, breaking up the stool and removing it in small pieces. The nurse should use gentle pressure and avoid injuring the rectal mucosa. The nurse should also explain the procedure to the client and obtain informed consent before performing it.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

- A is correct because aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) measures the effectiveness of heparin therapy and guides dosage adjustments.

- B is incorrect because PT (prothrombin time) measures the effectiveness of warfarin therapy, not heparin.

- C is incorrect because INR (international normalized ratio) is a standardized version of PT that also monitors warfarin therapy, not heparin.

- D is incorrect because WBC count (white blood cell count) measures the body's immune response and has no relation to heparin therapy.

A. Turn on the faucets in the client's sink. B. Tell the client to gently stroke her lower abdomen. C. Instruct the client to lean slightly backward. D. Pour cool water over the client's perineum.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice B rationale:

Instructing the client to gently stroke her lower abdomen is the appropriate action in this situation. Gentle stroking or tapping on the lower abdomen can stimulate the bladder reflex and promote urination. This technique can help clients who have difficulty voiding, especially when using a bedpan. It encourages relaxation of the pelvic muscles, making it easier for the client to urinate.

Choice A rationale:

Turning on the faucets in the client's sink is not a recommended action for promoting urination. While the sound of running water can sometimes trigger the need to urinate, it may not be effective for every individual. Moreover, this action may not be practical or feasible in all healthcare settings.

Choice C rationale:

Instructing the client to lean slightly backward is not an appropriate action for promoting urination. Leaning backward can put pressure on the bladder, which may make it more challenging for the client to urinate. Encouraging relaxation and using techniques like gentle abdominal stroking are more effective in this situation.

Choice D rationale:

Pouring cool water over the client's perineum is not a recommended action for promoting urination. While some individuals find warm water soothing and relaxing, pouring cold water may cause discomfort and stress, making it even more difficult for the client to urinate. Gentle stimulation and relaxation techniques are generally more effective.

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A nurse is caring for a client who has a fecal impaction. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when digitally evacuating the stool?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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