A nurse is caring for a client who has a fecal impaction. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when digitally evacuating the stool?

Place the client in the lithotomy position.

Elicit a vagal response by performing gentle rectal stimulation.

Administer oral bisacodyl 30 min prior to the procedure.

Insert a lubricated gloved finger and advance along the rectal wall.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

- A. Incorrect. The lithotomy position is not appropriate for this procedure, as it can cause discomfort and embarrassment to the client. The nurse should place the client in a left lateral Sims' position with the right knee flexed for better access to the rectum and to reduce pressure on the abdominal organs.

- B. Incorrect. The nurse should avoid eliciting a vagal response, as it can cause bradycardia, hypotension, and syncope in some clients. The nurse should monitor the client's vital signs and stop the procedure if signs of vagal stimulation occur.

- C. Incorrect. Oral bisacodyl is a stimulant laxative that can cause abdominal cramping, diarrhea, and electrolyte imbalance. It is not indicated for fecal impaction, as it can worsen the condition by increasing the bulk and hardness of the stool. The nurse should administer an enema or a stool softener before attempting digital evacuation.

- D. Correct. The nurse should insert a lubricated gloved finger and advance along the rectal wall, breaking up the stool and removing it in small pieces. The nurse should use gentle pressure and avoid injuring the rectal mucosa. The nurse should also explain the procedure to the client and obtain informed consent before performing it.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A: A client who has cellulitis and is receiving oral antibiotics every 8 hr has a mild to moderate infection that can be managed at home with proper wound care and medication adherence. The client does not require hospitalization unless there are signs of systemic infection or complications.

B: A client who is postoperative following an upper endoscopy procedure and is alert but does not have a gag reflex has a high risk of aspiration and airway obstruction due to impaired swallowing function. The client requires close monitoring and intervention until the gag reflex returns, which can take several hours or longer depending on the type and amount of anesthesia used.

C: A mother and their newborn 12 hr postdelivery have not completed the minimum recommended stay of 24 to 48 hours for uncomplicated vaginal deliveries or 72 to 96 hours for cesarean deliveries, according to the American Academy of Pediatrics and the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists. The mother and their newborn require assessment, education, support, and follow-up care to ensure their health and well-being.

D: A client who has lower extremity weakness and is newly admitted for observation has an undiagnosed condition that could indicate a serious neurological or vascular problem, such as stroke, spinal cord injury, or peripheral artery disease. The client requires diagnostic testing, evaluation, treatment, and rehabilitation to prevent further deterioration or complications.

A. "Your body temperature will drop approximately 1 degree 1 week after ovulation." B. "You should take your body temperature each evening prior to going to sleep." C. "Your body temperature might decrease slightly just prior to ovulation." D. "Your body temperature is at its highest during menstruation."

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

- A. This choice is incorrect because the body temperature does not drop 1 degree 1 week after ovulation. The body temperature rises slightly (about 0.4 to 0.8 degrees Fahrenheit) after ovulation and remains elevated until the next menstrual period.

- B. This choice is incorrect because the body temperature should be taken each morning before getting out of bed or doing any activity. Taking the temperature in the evening can result in inaccurate readings due to variations in daily activities, meals, stress, exercise, etc.

- C. This choice is correct because the body temperature might decrease slightly (about 0.2 degrees Fahrenheit) just prior to ovulation due to a surge in estrogen levels. This dip in temperature can indicate that ovulation is about to occur and that the client should avoid unprotected intercourse if she wants to prevent pregnancy.

- D. This choice is incorrect because the body temperature is not at its highest during menstruation. The body temperature drops at the onset of menstruation due to a decline in progesterone levels and marks the beginning of a new cycle.

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A nurse is caring for a client who has a fecal impaction. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when digitally evacuating the stool?

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