A nurse is caring for a client who has a fecal impaction. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when digitally evacuating the stool?

Place the client in the lithotomy position.

Elicit a vagal response by performing gentle rectal stimulation.

Administer oral bisacodyl 30 min prior to the procedure.

Insert a lubricated gloved finger and advance along the rectal wall.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

- A. Incorrect. The lithotomy position is not appropriate for this procedure, as it can cause discomfort and embarrassment to the client. The nurse should place the client in a left lateral Sims' position with the right knee flexed for better access to the rectum and to reduce pressure on the abdominal organs.

- B. Incorrect. The nurse should avoid eliciting a vagal response, as it can cause bradycardia, hypotension, and syncope in some clients. The nurse should monitor the client's vital signs and stop the procedure if signs of vagal stimulation occur.

- C. Incorrect. Oral bisacodyl is a stimulant laxative that can cause abdominal cramping, diarrhea, and electrolyte imbalance. It is not indicated for fecal impaction, as it can worsen the condition by increasing the bulk and hardness of the stool. The nurse should administer an enema or a stool softener before attempting digital evacuation.

- D. Correct. The nurse should insert a lubricated gloved finger and advance along the rectal wall, breaking up the stool and removing it in small pieces. The nurse should use gentle pressure and avoid injuring the rectal mucosa. The nurse should also explain the procedure to the client and obtain informed consent before performing it.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

- A. Diarrhea is not an adverse effect of amitriptyline, which is a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA). Diarrhea may be caused by other factors, such as infection, food intolerance, or stress. Therefore, this choice is incorrect.

- B. Frequent urination is not an adverse effect of amitriptyline either. Frequent urination may be a sign of diabetes, urinary tract infection, or other conditions that affect the kidneys or bladder. Therefore, this choice is also incorrect.

- C. Excessive salivation is not an adverse effect of amitriptyline as well. Excessive salivation may be due to increased production of saliva, difficulty swallowing, or mouth irritation. Therefore, this choice is incorrect too.

- D. Blurred vision is an adverse effect of amitriptyline and other TCAs. Amitriptyline can cause anticholinergic effects, such as dry mouth, constipation, urinary retention, and blurred vision. These effects are more pronounced in older adults and can impair their daily functioning and quality of life. Therefore, this choice is correct and the nurse should identify it as an adverse effect of the medication.

A. A client who is at 33 weeks of gestation and has severe gestational hypertension B. A client who is at 16 weeks of gestation and has a hydatidiform mole C. A client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and is experiencing vaginal bleeding D. A client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and has a positive group B streptococcal culture

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

- A. Correct. The nurse should initiate seizure precautions for a client who is at 33 weeks of gestation and has severe gestational hypertension, which is a blood pressure of 160/110 mm Hg or higher on two occasions at least 4 hr apart, or once with signs of end-organ damage. Severe gestational hypertension can lead to preeclampsia, which is a condition characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema, and can progress to eclampsia, which is a lifethreatening complication that involves seizures.

- B. Incorrect. The nurse does not need to initiate seizure precautions for a client who is at 16 weeks of gestation and has a hydatidiform mole, which is an abnormal growth of placental tissue that resembles grape-like clusters. A hydatidiform mole can cause vaginal bleeding, hyperemesis gravidarum, and elevated human chorionic gonadotropin levels, but it does not increase the risk of seizures.

- C. Incorrect. The nurse does not need to initiate seizure precautions for a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and is experiencing vaginal bleeding, which can have various causes such as placenta previa, placental abruption, or cervical trauma. Vaginal bleeding can indicate a potential hemorrhage, but it does not increase the risk of seizures.

- D. Incorrect. The nurse does not need to initiate seizure precautions for a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and has a positive group B streptococcal culture, which means that the client has bacteria in their vagina or rectum that can cause infection in the newborn during delivery. A positive group B streptococcal culture requires antibiotic prophylaxis during labor, but it does not increase the risk of seizures.

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