A nurse is caring for a client who had a vaginal birth 4 hours ago and had a third-degree perineal laceration with repair.
The client has been unable to void since giving birth. Which of the following findings indicates the need for straight catheterization?
The client rates perineal pain as 3 on a scale of 0 to 10.
The client has a moderate amount of lochia rubra.
The client's perineum is ecchymotic with moderate edema.
The client's fundus is boggy and deviated to the right.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
A pain rating of 3/10 indicates mild pain and is a expected finding following a vaginal birth with a third-degree laceration repair. Pain alone is not the primary indicator for catheterization unless it is severe enough to prevent voiding. The focus for catheterization is on signs of urinary retention and its consequences, like uterine atony.
Choice B rationale
Lochia rubra (bright red discharge, typically lasting 1-3 days) is the expected type of lochia 4 hours postpartum, and a moderate amount is normal. The characteristics of lochia are indicators of uterine involution and healing, but do not directly confirm the need for a catheterization due to inability to void.
Choice C rationale
Ecchymosis (bruising) and edema of the perineum are expected signs following a vaginal birth, especially with a laceration and repair. While swelling can sometimes contribute to difficulty voiding, it is an expected localized finding and not the most direct indicator that immediate straight catheterization is required to manage urinary retention.
Choice D rationale
A boggy (soft, not contracted) and deviated uterus is the most critical sign indicating a full or distended bladder preventing the uterus from contracting effectively. This distention leads to urinary retention and significantly increases the client's risk for postpartum hemorrhage. Immediate straight catheterization is necessary to empty the bladder and allow the uterus to firm up.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["0.25"]
Explanation
Step 1 is: Determine the number of tablets by dividing the prescribed dose by the available dose per tablet. (50 mcg÷ 200 mcg/tablet) = 0.25 tablet. The final calculated answer is 0.25 tablet.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Calcium gluconate must be readily available whenever magnesium sulfate is administered because it serves as the antidote for magnesium toxicity. Magnesium sulfate depresses neuromuscular transmission and the central nervous system, which can lead to respiratory depression, hypotension, and cardiac arrest if serum levels become excessive. Having calcium gluconate on hand allows for immediate reversal of these life-threatening effects. This is a critical safety measure and therefore a required nursing action.
Choice B rationale: Respiratory status must be assessed at least every hour during magnesium sulfate therapy because respiratory depression is a primary sign of magnesium toxicity. Normal adult respiratory rate is 12 to 20 breaths per minute, and a rate below 12/min is concerning. Magnesium depresses the respiratory center in the medulla, and early recognition of hypoventilation is essential to prevent hypoxia and arrest. Thus, frequent respiratory monitoring is a priority nursing action.
Choice C rationale: Monitoring intake and output is essential because magnesium sulfate is excreted almost entirely by the kidneys. Oliguria, defined as urine output less than 30 mL/hr, increases the risk of magnesium accumulation and toxicity. Careful fluid balance assessment ensures adequate renal clearance and helps prevent complications such as pulmonary edema. Therefore, strict I&O monitoring is a critical nursing responsibility during magnesium sulfate therapy to ensure safe drug metabolism and excretion.
Choice D rationale: Intermittent fetal monitoring is not appropriate in this context. Magnesium sulfate administration and preterm labor with rupture of membranes require continuous fetal monitoring to detect early signs of distress. Intermittent monitoring risks missing decelerations or prolonged bradycardia. Continuous monitoring provides real-time assessment of fetal well-being and is the standard of care in high-risk obstetric situations. Therefore, intermittent monitoring is not a correct action and should not be selected.
Choice E rationale: Supine positioning is contraindicated in pregnancy, especially in the third trimester, because the gravid uterus compresses the inferior vena cava, leading to supine hypotensive syndrome. This decreases venous return, cardiac output, and uteroplacental perfusion, compromising both maternal and fetal oxygenation. The correct position is left lateral recumbent to optimize circulation. Therefore, placing the client supine is unsafe and not an appropriate nursing action in this scenario.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.