A nurse is caring for a client who had a vaginal birth 4 hours ago and had a third-degree perineal laceration with repair.
The client has been unable to void since giving birth. Which of the following findings indicates the need for straight catheterization?
The client rates perineal pain as 3 on a scale of 0 to 10.
The client has a moderate amount of lochia rubra.
The client's perineum is ecchymotic with moderate edema.
The client's fundus is boggy and deviated to the right.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
A pain rating of 3/10 indicates mild pain and is a expected finding following a vaginal birth with a third-degree laceration repair. Pain alone is not the primary indicator for catheterization unless it is severe enough to prevent voiding. The focus for catheterization is on signs of urinary retention and its consequences, like uterine atony.
Choice B rationale
Lochia rubra (bright red discharge, typically lasting 1-3 days) is the expected type of lochia 4 hours postpartum, and a moderate amount is normal. The characteristics of lochia are indicators of uterine involution and healing, but do not directly confirm the need for a catheterization due to inability to void.
Choice C rationale
Ecchymosis (bruising) and edema of the perineum are expected signs following a vaginal birth, especially with a laceration and repair. While swelling can sometimes contribute to difficulty voiding, it is an expected localized finding and not the most direct indicator that immediate straight catheterization is required to manage urinary retention.
Choice D rationale
A boggy (soft, not contracted) and deviated uterus is the most critical sign indicating a full or distended bladder preventing the uterus from contracting effectively. This distention leads to urinary retention and significantly increases the client's risk for postpartum hemorrhage. Immediate straight catheterization is necessary to empty the bladder and allow the uterus to firm up.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale: The cervix being closed and thick at 42 weeks gestation is unfavorable and increases the risk for labor complications. At this stage, the cervix should ideally be effaced and dilated to allow for labor progression. A closed, thick cervix indicates poor readiness for labor, which may necessitate induction with cervical ripening agents. Failure of the cervix to ripen increases the risk of prolonged labor, failed induction, and cesarean delivery, making this a significant complication risk factor.
Choice B rationale: Being at 42 weeks gestation is post-term, which increases the risk for labor complications. Post-term pregnancy is associated with oligohydramnios, macrosomia, meconium aspiration, and placental insufficiency. These conditions can lead to fetal distress, shoulder dystocia, and increased rates of operative delivery. Therefore, advanced gestational age beyond 41 weeks is a recognized risk factor for complications, requiring close monitoring and often induction of labor to reduce maternal and neonatal morbidity.
Choice C rationale: A fetal heart rate of 150/min is within the normal baseline range of 110 to 160 beats per minute. This indicates adequate fetal oxygenation and no evidence of tachycardia or bradycardia. Since the FHR is normal and reassuring, it does not increase the risk for labor complications. Continuous monitoring is still important, but this specific finding is not a complication risk factor.
Choice D rationale: Clear to white mucus-like vaginal discharge is a normal physiologic finding in pregnancy, known as leukorrhea. It results from increased estrogen and cervical gland activity. This type of discharge is not associated with infection, rupture of membranes, or preterm labor. Since it is expected and benign, it does not increase the risk for labor complications. Only abnormal discharges such as foul-smelling, green, or bloody secretions would be concerning.
Choice E rationale: Vertex presentation, specifically left occiput anterior, is the most favorable fetal position for vaginal delivery. It allows for optimal alignment of the fetal head with the maternal pelvis, facilitating descent and rotation during labor. Malpresentations such as breech or transverse would increase the risk for complications, but vertex LOA is ideal. Therefore, this finding is favorable and does not increase the risk for labor complications.
Correct Answer is ["A","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Uterine contractions occurring every 2 to 3 minutes at 30 weeks gestation are abnormal and indicate preterm labor. Normal uterine activity in the third trimester should not demonstrate such frequency or cervical change until term. The presence of cervical dilation (2 cm) and effacement (80%) confirms labor physiology. Preterm labor poses risks of neonatal respiratory distress, intraventricular hemorrhage, and sepsis. Therefore, this finding requires immediate follow-up to prevent complications associated with premature birth.
Choice B rationale: Abdominal assessment revealed a soft, nontender abdomen with no rebound tenderness. These findings are within normal limits and do not suggest acute abdominal pathology such as placental abruption, appendicitis, or peritonitis. In obstetrics, concerning abdominal findings would include rigidity, tenderness, or guarding. The absence of these signs indicates no emergent intra-abdominal complication. Thus, this assessment does not require follow-up, as it reflects a physiologically normal abdominal exam for a pregnant client.
Choice C rationale: Fundal height at 30 weeks gestation is expected to measure approximately 28 to 32 cm, correlating with gestational age ±2 cm. This client’s fundal height of 28 cm falls within the normal range. Deviations greater than 3 cm could indicate intrauterine growth restriction, oligohydramnios, or macrosomia. Since the measurement is consistent with gestational norms, it does not require follow-up. This finding is physiologically appropriate and does not suggest pathology or abnormal fetal growth at this stage of pregnancy.
Choice D rationale: Abdominal cramping in the third trimester, when associated with cervical dilation and effacement, is a hallmark of preterm labor. Unlike benign Braxton Hicks contractions, which are irregular and non-progressive, these cramps are accompanied by cervical change and regular contractions. This indicates true labor physiology before 37 weeks. Preterm labor increases risks of neonatal morbidity and mortality. Therefore, abdominal cramping in this context requires follow-up to initiate interventions such as tocolysis, corticosteroids, and infection evaluation.
Choice E rationale: Low back pain in pregnancy can be benign due to musculoskeletal strain, but in this case, it is associated with uterine contractions, cervical change, and rupture of membranes. Low back pain is a common presenting symptom of preterm labor due to referred pain from uterine activity. Additionally, fever (38.3°C) and elevated WBC count (22,000/mm³; normal 5,000–10,000/mm³) raise concern for intra-amniotic infection. Thus, low back pain here is pathologic and requires follow-up to rule out chorioamnionitis and manage preterm labor.
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