A nurse is caring for a client who is in active labor.
The nurse notes late decelerations in the fetal heart rate on the monitor tracing. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Initiate internal fetal heart rate monitoring.
Assist the client to a left lateral position.
Palpate the client's uterus for tachysystole.
Increase the infusion rate of the maintenance IV fluid.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Initiating internal fetal heart rate monitoring is an invasive procedure that is not the priority for a non-reassuring fetal heart rate pattern like late decelerations, which often indicate uteroplacental insufficiency. The first step involves non-invasive intrauterine resuscitation measures to immediately improve fetal oxygenation before considering invasive monitoring, unless the external tracing is inadequate.
Choice B rationale
Late decelerations are an indication of uteroplacental insufficiency (decreased blood flow/oxygen to the fetus during the contraction). Assisting the client to a left lateral position is the priority nursing action because it relieves pressure from the gravid uterus on the vena cava, which in turn maximizes venous return to the heart and increases blood flow and oxygen delivery to the placenta and fetus.
Choice C rationale
While uterine tachysystole (excessive frequency of contractions, greater than five in 10 minutes over 30 minutes) can cause late decelerations, palpating for it is not the absolute first action. The immediate priority is to improve fetal oxygenation by repositioning the mother. Palpation for tachysystole, however, is a quick assessment that should follow the repositioning intervention.
Choice D rationale
Increasing the infusion rate of the maintenance IV fluid (an IV fluid bolus) is a critical step in intrauterine resuscitation for late decelerations. It increases maternal blood volume, which can improve placental perfusion. However, repositioning the client is generally the most immediate, least invasive, and first step to correct or improve the blood flow to the placenta and fetus.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"C","dropdown-group-2":"C"}
Explanation
The nurse should first address the fetal heart rate followed by the client's vaginal discharge.
WBC count rationale: A WBC count of 22,000/mm³ is significantly elevated above the normal range of 5,000 to 10,000/mm³, suggesting maternal infection such as chorioamnionitis. While this is clinically important, it is not the immediate first priority in acute obstetric care. Maternal infection must be managed, but fetal well-being is prioritized first because hypoxia or distress can occur rapidly and requires immediate recognition and intervention before laboratory abnormalities are addressed.
Maternal Blood Type rationale: The maternal blood type of O negative is clinically relevant for Rh incompatibility and the need for Rho(D) immune globulin administration. However, this is not an acute priority in the setting of preterm labor with rupture of membranes. Blood type considerations are important for long-term management but do not supersede the need to assess fetal well-being or evaluate vaginal discharge for evidence of amniotic fluid leakage or bleeding.
Fetal heart rate rationale: Fetal heart rate monitoring is the highest priority because it provides real-time information about fetal oxygenation and well-being. The normal baseline range is 110 to 160 beats per minute, and this client’s rate of 148/min is within normal limits. However, continuous monitoring is essential due to preterm labor, rupture of membranes, and maternal fever, all of which increase the risk of fetal distress. Therefore, fetal heart rate assessment is addressed first to ensure immediate recognition of hypoxia or compromise.
Respiratory rate rationale: The maternal respiratory rate of 18/min is within the normal adult range of 12 to 20/min. This finding does not indicate acute compromise and does not require urgent intervention. While maternal respiratory status is always monitored, it is not prioritized above fetal assessment or evaluation of vaginal discharge in this scenario. Thus, respiratory rate is stable and requires only routine monitoring, not immediate follow-up in the prioritization of care.
Blood pressure rationale: The maternal blood pressure of 112/59 mm Hg is within acceptable limits for pregnancy, as mild decreases in systemic vascular resistance are physiologic. Hypotension would be concerning if systolic <90 mm Hg or diastolic <50 mm Hg, but this value does not indicate shock or preeclampsia. Therefore, blood pressure is not prioritized over fetal monitoring or vaginal discharge assessment in this case. It remains stable and requires routine monitoring only.
Vaginal discharge rationale: Vaginal discharge is the next priority after fetal heart rate because the client has clear fluid with nitrazine positive, confirming premature rupture of membranes, along with mucous discharge and bleeding. These findings raise concern for infection, preterm labor progression, and placental complications. Evaluating vaginal discharge helps determine the presence of amniotic fluid, blood, or purulent material, guiding urgent interventions. Therefore, it is addressed immediately after fetal heart rate monitoring to prevent maternal and fetal complications.
Correct Answer is ["A","E","F"]
Explanation
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🧾 Explanation
- Irritability: While some fussiness is expected, persistent irritability is a red flag for metabolic or infectious causes.
- Temperature 36.2°C: Below normal → newborn hypothermia, which can worsen quickly.
- Respiratory rate 80/min: Markedly elevated → tachypnea, possible respiratory distress or sepsis.
- Other findings (milia, lanugo, brisk pupils, HR 158, clear lungs, normal stool) are expected newborn variations and do not require reporting.
✅ Final Answer: The nurse should report:
- Neurologic: Irritability
- Cardiopulmonary: Axillary temperature 36.2°C
- Cardiopulmonary: Respiratory rate 80/min
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