A nurse is caring for a client who is in active labor.
The nurse notes late decelerations in the fetal heart rate on the monitor tracing. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Initiate internal fetal heart rate monitoring.
Assist the client to a left lateral position.
Palpate the client's uterus for tachysystole.
Increase the infusion rate of the maintenance IV fluid.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Initiating internal fetal heart rate monitoring is an invasive procedure that is not the priority for a non-reassuring fetal heart rate pattern like late decelerations, which often indicate uteroplacental insufficiency. The first step involves non-invasive intrauterine resuscitation measures to immediately improve fetal oxygenation before considering invasive monitoring, unless the external tracing is inadequate.
Choice B rationale
Late decelerations are an indication of uteroplacental insufficiency (decreased blood flow/oxygen to the fetus during the contraction). Assisting the client to a left lateral position is the priority nursing action because it relieves pressure from the gravid uterus on the vena cava, which in turn maximizes venous return to the heart and increases blood flow and oxygen delivery to the placenta and fetus.
Choice C rationale
While uterine tachysystole (excessive frequency of contractions, greater than five in 10 minutes over 30 minutes) can cause late decelerations, palpating for it is not the absolute first action. The immediate priority is to improve fetal oxygenation by repositioning the mother. Palpation for tachysystole, however, is a quick assessment that should follow the repositioning intervention.
Choice D rationale
Increasing the infusion rate of the maintenance IV fluid (an IV fluid bolus) is a critical step in intrauterine resuscitation for late decelerations. It increases maternal blood volume, which can improve placental perfusion. However, repositioning the client is generally the most immediate, least invasive, and first step to correct or improve the blood flow to the placenta and fetus.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While seizures are a serious adverse effect of ergot alkaloids, they are primarily associated with the most severe form of ergotism, which is an overdose or prolonged exposure, or in clients with severe preeclampsia/eclampsia. Methylergonovine's more common and immediate adverse effect is its potent vasoconstrictive property, leading to elevated blood pressure.
Choice B rationale
Methylergonovine is an ergot alkaloid that acts as a potent vasoconstrictor and smooth muscle contractor, primarily on the uterus to treat postpartum hemorrhage and uterine atony. Its generalized vasoconstrictive effect, however, can lead to a significant elevation in blood pressure, making hypertension (blood pressure greater than 140/90 mmHg or an increase of 20 mmHg or more) a major and frequent adverse effect.
Choice C rationale
Methylergonovine's potent vasoconstrictive action typically causes an increase in peripheral vascular resistance, which often results in bradycardia (heart rate less than 60 beats/min) as a reflex response to the elevated blood pressure. Tachycardia (heart rate greater than 100 beats/min) is not a typical adverse effect of this medication.
Choice D rationale
Methylergonovine acts mainly on the smooth muscle of the uterus and blood vessels; it does not typically cause water retention. Water retention is more commonly associated with conditions like preeclampsia or medications such as glucocorticoids. The adverse effects of methylergonovine center around vasoconstriction and uterine cramping.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Instructing the client to be NPO (nil per os), or nothing by mouth, is not typically required before an amniocentesis procedure. The client can usually eat and drink normally. Fasting is more commonly associated with procedures involving general anesthesia or those where there is a risk of aspiration, neither of which is routine for an amniocentesis. Clients may be asked to empty their bladder before the procedure to avoid puncturing it.
Choice B rationale
For an Rh-negative client undergoing an amniocentesis, there is a risk of fetomaternal hemorrhage during the procedure, which can lead to the mother's immune system producing Rh antibodies that attack the fetus's red blood cells in the current or future pregnancies. Therefore, administering Rh(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) after the procedure is essential to prevent Rh sensitization. The standard dose is administered within 72 hours of the procedure.
Choice C rationale
Positioning the client in a left lateral position is typically used to promote optimal uteroplacental perfusion or during the second stage of labor. For an amniocentesis, the client is usually positioned in a supine position with a wedge placed under the right hip to slightly tilt the uterus and prevent vena cava compression, providing the provider with a clear anatomical view for ultrasound guidance.
Choice D rationale
The insertion site on the client's abdomen is cleaned with an antiseptic solution, such as povidone-iodine or chlorhexidine, to reduce the risk of introducing bacteria into the sterile field or uterus. Irrigating the site with sterile water is an inappropriate action for skin preparation as it is not a primary antiseptic and may interfere with the effectiveness of the chosen antiseptic solution.
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